[2017-November New] 100% Success Rate Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam Video Implementing Cisco Network Security Free Dowload

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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210-260 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As:

A switching fabric switch port is connected to a fiber optic hub port, then see from this port fiber switch type yes.
A. G-Port
B. E-Port
C. F-Port
D. FL-Port
210-260 exam Answer: D
S2600 series storage arrays do not support port type ()
A. SAS host ports
B. SAS expander port
C. FC host ports
D. FC cascade port
Answer: D
Import and export configuration information via the ISM, which operate under the entry of the navigation tree
A. Configuration Assistant
B. System Configuration
C. Device Information
D. Mapping
210-260 dumps Answer: B
When installed on Windows 2003 UltraPath for Windows, in Device Manager:
A. Successful installation displays “UltraPath Device Specific Module”
B. If the installation is successful, displays “Multi-Path Support”
C. Successful installation displays “Multi-Path Device Specific Module”
D. If the installation is successful, displays “UltraPath Support”
Answer: B
FC protocol, FC-2 layer defines: (Choose two)
A. Coding Standards
B. Decoding standard
C. Flow Control
D. Frame Agreement
210-260 pdf Answer: C,D
Hard disk capacity is what factors determine the size of? (Choose three)
A. Number of heads
B. Sectors
C. Number of tracks
D. Number of cylinders
Answer: A,B,D
All of the following are the reporting standards in government auditing EXCEPT:
A. The auditor should plan the audit in a manner which ensures that an audit of high quality is carried out in an economic, efficient, and effective way and in a timely manner.
B. It is for the SAI to which they belong to decide finally on the action to be taken in relation to fraudulent practices or serious irregularities discovered by the auditors.
C. At the end of each audit the auditor should prepare a written opinion or report, as appropriate, setting out the findings in an appropriate form; its content should be easy to understand and be independent, objective, fair, and constructive.
D. The work of the audit staff at each level and audit phase should be properly supervised during the audit; and documented work should be reviewed by a senior member of the audit staff.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
With regard to __________, the auditor should prepare a written report, which may either be a part of the report on the ____________ or a separate report on the tests of compliance with applicable laws and regulations. The report should contain a statement of positive assurance on those items tested for compliance and negative assurance on those items not tested:
A. Income statements, financial audits
B. Financial statements, regularity audits
C. Regularity audits, financial statements
D. operational audits, financial statements
Answer: C
The _______________ mission is to serve the public interest, strengthen the global accountancy profession, and contribute to the development of strong international economies by establishing and promoting adherence to high-quality professional standards, furthering the international convergence of such standards, and speaking out on public interest issues where the profession’s
expertise is most relevant:
A. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
B. The International Federation of Accountants (IFAC)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
D. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
210-260 exam Answer: B
Which committee of IFAC issues pronouncements aimed at developing and harmonizing public sector financial reporting, accounting, and auditing practices while “Public sector” refers to national governments, regional (state, provincial, territorial) governments, local (city, town) governments, and related governmental entities (agencies, boards, commissions, and enterprises)?
A. Advisory committee
B. Ethic’s committee
C. Public Sector Committee (PSC)
D. general rules and regulation committee
Answer: C
The auditors of public sector entities may be required to report on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. reporting to the owners
B. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities;
C. Adequacy of accounting and internal control systems;
D. Economy, efficiency, and effectiveness of programs, projects, and activities.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
All of the following are the objectives of an audit EXCEPT:
A. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities.
B. the auditor’s opinion enhances the credibility of the financial statements, the user Cannot assume that the opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the entity nor the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the entity.
C. The phrases used to express the auditor’s opinion are “give a true and fair view” or “present fairly, in all material respects,” which are equivalent terms.
D. The objective of an audit of financial statements is to enable the auditor to express an opinion whether the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with and identified financial reporting framework.
Answer: A
The auditor should comply with the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants issued by the International Federation of Accountants. All of the following are the ethical principles governing the auditor’s professional responsibilities EXCEPT:
A. Independence and integrity.
B. Professional competence and due care and confidentiality.
C. Professional behavior and Technical standards.
D. No confidentiality;
210-260 pdf Answer: D
The term _________ refers to the audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances to achieve the objective of the audit. The procedures required to conduct an audit in accordance with _________ should be determined by the auditor having regard to the requirements of ISAs, relevant professional bodies, legislation, and regulations:
A. Scope of an audit, ISAs
B. Purpose of an audit, ISAs
C. Principle of an audit, ISAs
D. Purpose of an audit, PSPs
Answer: A

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Easily To Pass Cisco 210-260 VCE: Implementing Cisco Network Security

This 210-260 exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security using:

  • SIEM Technology
  • Cloud & Virtual Network Topologies
  • BYOD, Bring Your Own Device
  • Identity Services Engine (ISE)
  • 802.1x Authentication
  • Cisco FirePOWER Next Generation IPS (under Domain 6.0)
  • Anti-Malware/Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
  • Exam Details:http://www.passitexams.com/210-260.html

210-260 vce

Network Security Threat Landscape
1. Which of the following is not a motivation of malicious actors?
a. Disruption
b. Bug bounty awards
c. Financial
d. Geopolitical
2. Which of the following is not considered a type of DDoS attack?
a. Directed
b. Cached
c. Reflected
d. Amplified

3. Why is UDP the “protocol of choice” for reflected DDoS attacks?
a. There are more application choices when using UDP.
b. UDP requires a three-way handshake to establish a connection.
c. UDP is much more easily spoofed.
d. TCP cannot be used in DDoS attacks.

4. Which of the following is leveraged in social engineering?
a. Software vulnerabilities
b. Human nature
c. Protocol violations
d. Application issues

5. Which of the following is not a form of social engineering?
a. Phone scams
b. Phishing
c. Denial of service (DoS)
d. Malvertising   200-355 dumps

6. Which of the following is not a valid defense against social engineering?
a. Two-factor authentication
b. Information classification
c. Infrastructure hardening
d. Physical security

7. Which tool provides the most granular information to help in the identification of
a. NetFlow
b. Syslog
c. Packet capture
d. Server logs

8. NetFlow provides which of the following?
a. Detailed data about each packet on the network
b. Troubleshooting messages about the network devices
c. Information on the types of traffic traversing the network
d. Network names of routers, end hosts, servers


9. Which of the following is not used for identification of malware on the network?
a. NetFlow
b. IPS events
c. Routing Information Base (RIB)
d. Packet captures

10. Which type of data is not often attractive to malicious actors?
a. Personally identifiable information (PII)
b. Training schedules
c. Credit and debit card data
d. Intellectual property (IP)

210-260 vce

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