Everything You Need to Know About Cisco’s 300-115 Exam

Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Jan 05, 2017
Q&As: 201
Exam Details: http://www.kingdump.com/300-115.html

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300-115 Exam

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Where do you find the Mac OS X v.10.2 Connect To Server command?
A. System Preferences
B. Network Utility
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Finder/File/Connect To Server
E. Finder/Go/Connect To Server

Correct Answer: E
What are the different types of user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. root
B. Administrator
C. Child
D. User
E. Limited
F. sudo
G. Windows Only

Correct Answer: ABD
In Finder, how do you set individual user permissions and privileges, other than the standard user permissions? Choose two.
A. Finder/File/Show Info
B. Finder/View/Show Info
C. Command + I
D. Command + S
E. Favorites
F. Apple Menu/Options

Correct Answer: AC
Under each user’s home folder, which folders are visible, contents and all, to every user? Choose all that apply.
A. Desktop
B. Library
C. Shared
D. Documents
E. Inbox
F. Outbox
G. Public
H. Sites

Correct Answer: GH     300-206 exam
In Mac OS X v. 10.2 where are the fonts stored? Choose two.
A. Library/Fonts
B. Services/Fonts
C. Resources/Fonts
D. Applications/Utilities/Fonts
E. Home folder/Public/Fonts
F. Home folder/Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: AF
How can you access the command line in Mac OS X v.10.2? Choose all that apply.
A. Applications/Terminal
B. Applications/Darwin
C. Apple Menu/Command Line
D. During startup, hold down Command + S
E. At the Login window, type in >console
F. At the Login window, type in >local
Correct Answer: ADE
What is the code name for the Mac OS X v.10.2 GUI?
A. Jaguar
B. Panther
C. Darwin
D. Aqua
E. iDisplay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15

300-115 Exam

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How Can I Get Valid Cisco 100-101 Dumps for Passing the CCNA Exam?

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Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 2
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
Correct Answer: C

100-101 Dumps
Refer to the exhibit.

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C   117-201 exam
Refer to the exhibit.

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E
Refer to the exhibit.

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
C. aabb.5555.2222

E. abcd.2246.0035

Correct Answer: E
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.

The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
Correct Answer: E

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A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit.

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical

Correct Answer: D
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AD

200-120 exam
Refer to the graphic.

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase.
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.

Correct Answer: CD
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: BDE

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
Refer to exhibit:

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Correct Answer: CF
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Correct Answer: AE

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What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Which three commands can be used to harden a switch? (Choose three.)
A. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
B. switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping
C. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 900
D. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree guard root
E. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard disable
F. switch(config-if)# no cdp enable
Correct Answer: BDF Explanation
What are three features of the Cisco ASA 1000V? (Choose three.)
A. cloning the Cisco ASA 1000V
B. dynamic routing
C. the Cisco VNMC policy agent
D. IPv6
E. active/standby failover
F. QoS
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 300-101 exam
If the Cisco ASA 1000V has too few licenses, what is its behavior?
A. It drops all traffic.
B. It drops all outside-to-inside packets.
C. It drops all inside-to-outside packets.
D. It passes the first outside-to-inside packet and drops all remaining packets.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

300-206 Exam
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices.

The user needs read-write access to policies.

The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will the administrator assign to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B Explanation
What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS access?
A. sslconfig
B. sslciphers
C. tlsconifg
D. certconfig
Correct Answer: A Explanation
What is the CLI command to enable SNMPv3 on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?
A. snmpconfig
B. snmpenable
C. configsnmp
D. enablesnmp
Correct Answer: A Explanation

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Refer to the exhibit.

Which command only announces the network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://cisco300-101dumps.hatenablog.com/
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only, whereas access list 1 permits all networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list
only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit ge 24 le 24?
Correct Answer: B Explanation
With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to
24 and less than or equal to 24. This translate to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
Only the choice of matches this.

Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output. Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?
A. OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B. The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C. An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
D. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/route2.html
show ipv6 traffic Field Descriptions
Field Description
source- Number of source-routed packets.
truncated Number of truncated packets.
format Errors that can result from checks performed on header fields, errors the version number, and packet length.
not a Message sent when IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled.

300-101 exam

After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation: Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit
MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The
16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the an EUI-48 MAC address.
Here is an example showing how a the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.

Once the above is done, we have a fully functional EUI-64 format address. Reference:
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation: Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified IPv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message. RA messages typically include the following information:

One or more onlink IPv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure their IPv6 addresses
Lifetime information for each prefix included in the advertisement

Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be completed

Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default router)

Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it originates Reference:
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
Traffic from R1 to R61 s Loopback address is load shared between R1-R2-R4-R6 and R1-R3- R5-R6 paths. What is the ratio of traffic over each path?
A. 1:1
B. 1:5

C. 6:8
D. 19:80 Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
First, find the IP address of the loopback0 interface on R6:
We see that it is, so we issue the “show ip route” command from R1 and see this:

Notice the “traffic share count” shows 19 for the first path, and 80 for the second path.
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.

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Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.

Correct Answer: BD
What is the standard Layer 3 DSCP media packet value that should be set for Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. CS3 (24)
B. EF (46)
C. AF41 (34)
D. CS4 (32)

Correct Answer: D
When you configure QoS on VCS, which settings do you apply if traffic through the VCS should be tagged with DSCP AF41?
A. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 32.
B. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 34.
C. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 34.
D. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 32.
E. Set QoS mode to ToS and tag value to 32.

Correct Answer: C
What is the default DSCP/PHB for video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24

Correct Answer: C
The administrator at Company X is getting user reports of inconsistent quality on video calls between endpoints registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The administrator runs a wire trace while a video call is taking place and sees that the packets are not set to AF41 for desktop video as they should be. Where should the administrator look next to confirm that the correct DSCP markings are being set?
A. on the MGCP router at the edge of both networks
B. the service parameters in the VCS Control
C. the QoS service parameter in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. on the actual Cisco phone itself because the DSCP setting is not part of its configuration file downloaded at registration
E. The setting cannot be changed for video endpoints that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, but only when they are registered to the VCS Control.

Correct Answer: C  http://www.certadept.com/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interface Fastethernet0/1? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2 mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD
When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.

Correct Answer: C
Which two options are valid service parameter settings that are used to set up proper video QoS behavior across the Cisco Unified Communications Manager infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. DSCP for Video Calls when RSVP Fails
B. Default Intraregion Min Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
C. Default Interregion Max Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
D. DSCP for Video Signaling
E. DSCP for Video Signaling when RSVP Fails
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 23
Which action is performed by the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway with SRST configured, when it loses connectivity with the primary and backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers?
A. The gateway continues to make an attempt to connect to the backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.
B. The gateway falls back to the H.323 protocol for further call processing.
C. The gateway continues with the MGCP call processing without any interruption.
D. The gateway waits for the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to come alive.
E. All MGCP call processing is interrupted until the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers are online.
F. The MGCP calls are queued up until the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers are online.

Correct Answer: B  http://www.maeeonline.org/cisco-300-075-dumps-download/
Which option is a benefit of implementing CFUR?
A. CFUR is designed to initiate TEHO to reduce toll charges.
B. CFUR can prevent phones from unregistering.
C. CFUR can reroute calls placed to a temporarily unregistered destination phone.
D. CFUR eliminates the need for COR on an ISR.

Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change is needed to enable NANP international dialing during MGCP fallback?
A. Change the dial peer to dial-peer voice 901 voip.
B. Change the dial peer to dial-peer voice 9011 pots.
C. Add the command prefix 011 to the dial peer.
D. Add the command prefix 9011 to the dial peer.

Correct Answer: C
Which command is needed to utilize local dial peers on an MGCP-controlled ISR during an SRST failover?
A. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
B. telephony-service
C. dialplan-pattern
D. isdn overlap-receiving
E. voice-translation-rule

Correct Answer: A
Which three commands are mandatory to implement SRST for five Cisco IP Phones? (Choose three.)
A. call-manager-fallback
B. max-ephones
C. keepalive
D. limit-dn
E. ip source-address

Correct Answer: ABE
Which commands are needed to configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode?
A. telephony-service and srst mode
B. telephony-service and moh
C. call-manager-fallback and srst mode
D. call-manager-fallback and voice-translation

Correct Answer: A   200-105 pdf
You need to verify if the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway is enabled and active. Which command should you use for this purpose?
A. show running-config
B. show fallback-mgcp
C. show gateway
D. show ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
E. show running-config gateway
F. show fallback-mgcp ccm-manager

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  • Anti-Malware/Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
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Network Security Threat Landscape
1. Which of the following is not a motivation of malicious actors?
a. Disruption
b. Bug bounty awards
c. Financial
d. Geopolitical
2. Which of the following is not considered a type of DDoS attack?
a. Directed
b. Cached
c. Reflected
d. Amplified

3. Why is UDP the “protocol of choice” for reflected DDoS attacks?
a. There are more application choices when using UDP.
b. UDP requires a three-way handshake to establish a connection.
c. UDP is much more easily spoofed.
d. TCP cannot be used in DDoS attacks.

4. Which of the following is leveraged in social engineering?
a. Software vulnerabilities
b. Human nature
c. Protocol violations
d. Application issues

5. Which of the following is not a form of social engineering?
a. Phone scams
b. Phishing
c. Denial of service (DoS)
d. Malvertising   200-355 dumps

6. Which of the following is not a valid defense against social engineering?
a. Two-factor authentication
b. Information classification
c. Infrastructure hardening
d. Physical security

7. Which tool provides the most granular information to help in the identification of
a. NetFlow
b. Syslog
c. Packet capture
d. Server logs

8. NetFlow provides which of the following?
a. Detailed data about each packet on the network
b. Troubleshooting messages about the network devices
c. Information on the types of traffic traversing the network
d. Network names of routers, end hosts, servers


9. Which of the following is not used for identification of malware on the network?
a. NetFlow
b. IPS events
c. Routing Information Base (RIB)
d. Packet captures

10. Which type of data is not often attractive to malicious actors?
a. Personally identifiable information (PII)
b. Training schedules
c. Credit and debit card data
d. Intellectual property (IP)

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Exam Code: 117-201
Exam Name: LPI Level 2 Exam 201
117-201 Test Questions Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2016-11-01

NO.1 To be able to access the server with the IP address using HTTPS, a rule for iptables has
to be written. Given that the client host’s IP address is, which of the following commands is
A.iptables A FORWARD p tcp s 0/0 d dport 80 j ACCEPT
B.iptables A FORWARD p tcp s d j ACCEPT
C.iptables A FORWARD p tcp s d dport 443 j ACCEPT
D.iptables A INPUT p tcp s d j ACCEPT
E.iptables A FORWARD p tcp s 0/0 d dport 443 j ACCEPTWArialCourier NewTimes New

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NO.2 route shows the following output:
Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface !H 0 0 U 0 0 0 eth2 U 0 0 0 eth0 U 0 0 0 lo UG 0 0 0 eth0
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.The network is not a valid route.
B.The host is temporarily down.
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D.The “!H” signals that traffic to the host is dropped.
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Oracle Certification Prep: Oracle 1z0-047 Exam Details and Preparation Resources

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View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the MARKS_DETAILS and MARKStables.

Which is the best method to load data from the MARKS DETAILStable to the MARKStable?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT

Correct Answer: A
Which statements are true regarding the usage of the WITH clause in complex correlated subqueries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be used only with the SELECT clause.
B. The WITH clause can hold more than one query.
C. If the query block name and the table name were the same, then the table name would take precedence.
D. The query name in the WITH clause is visible to other query blocks in the WITH clause as well as to the main query block.

Correct Answer: ABD
OE and SCOTT are the users in the database. The ORDERS table is owned by OE. Evaluate the
statements issued by the DBA in the following sequence:

GRANT r1 TO scott;
GRANT SELECT ON oe. orders TO scott;
REVOKE SELECT ON oe.orders FROM scott;

What would be the outcome after executing the statements?

A. SCOTT would be able to query the OE.ORDERS table.
B. SCOTT would not be able to query the OE.ORDERS table.
C. The REVOKE statement would remove the SELECT privilege from SCOTT as well as from the role R1.
D. The REVOKE statement would give an error because the SELECT privilege has been granted to the role R1

Correct Answer: A
Which statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administrator.
B. The data dictionary views can consist of joins of dictionary base tables and user-defined tables.
C. The usernames of all the users including the database administrators are stored in the data dictionary.
D. The USER_CONS_COLUMNS view should be queried to find the names of the columns to which a constraint applies.
E. Both USER_ODBJECTS and CAT views provide the same information about all the objects that are owned by the user.
F. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as DBA, ALL and USER, use the same base tables from the data dictionary

Correct Answer: CDF  100-101 practice exam
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. ATIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a varchar2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Correct Answer: ADE

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Which statement best describes the GROUPING function?
A. It is used to set the order for the groups to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
B. It is used to form various groups to calculate total and subtotals created using ROLLUP and CUBE operators.
C. It is used to identify if the NULL value in an expression is a stored NULL value or created by ROLLUP or CUBE.
D. It is used to specify the concatenated group expressions to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
Correct Answer: C    http://www.exampass.net/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables.

To retrieve data for all the employees for their EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT NAME,
the following SQL statement was written:

SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_name
FROM employees NATURAL JOIN departments;
The desired output is not obtained after executing the above SQL statement. What could be the reason for

A. The NATURAL JOIN clause is missing the USING clause.
B. The table prefix is missing for the column names in the SELECT clause.
C. The DEPARTMENTS table is not used before the EMPLOYEES table in the FROM clause.
D. The EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables have more than one column with the same column name and data type.

Correct Answer: D
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of EMPLOYEES and JOB_HISTORY tables. The EMPLOYEES table maintains the most recent information regarding salary, department, and job for all the employees. The JOB_HISTORY table maintains the record for all the job changes for the employees. You want to delete all the records from the JOB_HISTORY table that are repeated in the EMPLOYEES table.

Which two SQL statements can you execute to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
A. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE employee_id =(SELECT employee_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id)AND job_id = (SELECT job_idFROM employees eWHERE j.job_id = e.job_id);
B. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE (employee_id, job_id) = ALL(SELECT employee_id, job_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id and j.job_id = e.job_id)
C. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE employee_id =(SELECT employee_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id and j.job_id = e.job_id)
D. DELETEFROM job_history jWHERE (employee_id, job_id) =(SELECT employee_id, job_idFROM employees eWHERE j.employee_id = e.employee_id and j.job_id = e.job_id)

Correct Answer: AD
View the Exhibit and examine PRODUCTS and ORDER_ITEMS tables.
You executed the following query to display PRODUCT_NAME and the number of times the product has been ordered:
SELECT p.product_name, i.item_cnt FROM (SELECT product_id, COUNT (*) item_cnt FROM order_items GROUP BY product_id) i RIGHT OUTER JOIN products p ON i.product_id = p.product_id;

What would happen when the above statement is executed?
A. The statement would execute successfully to produce the required output.
B. The statement would not execute because inline views and outer joins cannot be used together.
C. The statement would not execute because the ITEM_CNT alias cannot be displayed in the outer query.
D. The statement would not execute because the GROUP BY clause cannot be used in the inline view.

Correct Answer: A
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to display the EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT_ID for all the employees who work in the same department and have the same manager as that of the employee having EMPLOYEE_ID
104. To accomplish the task, you execute the following SQL statement:
SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_id FROM employees WHERE (manager_id, department_id) =(SELECT department_id, manager_id FROM employees WHERE employee_id = 104) AND employee_id <> 104; When you execute the statement it does not produce the desired output. What is the reason for this?

A. The WHERE clause condition in the main query is using the = comparison operator, instead of EXISTS.
B. The WHERE clause condition in the main query is using the = comparison operator, instead of the IN operator.
C. The WHERE clause condition in the main query is using the = comparison operator, instead of the = ANY operator.
D. The columns in the WHERE clause condition of the main query and the columns selected in the subquery should be in the same order.

Correct Answer: D  Read More Official Information: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/icnd1b.html
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.

You executed the following command to add a primary key to the EMP table:
USING INDEX emp_id_idx;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of the command?
A. The PRIMARY KEY is created along with a new index.
B. The PRIMARY KEY is created and it would use an existing unique index.
C. The PRIMARY KEY would be created in a disabled state because it is using an existing index.
D. The statement produces an error because the USING clause is permitted only in the CREATE TABLE command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
View the Exhibitl and examine the descriptions of the EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables.

The following SQL statement was executed:
SELECT e.department_id, e.job_id, d.location_id, sum(e.salary) total, GROUPING(e.department_id)
GROUPING(d. location_id) GRP_LOC
FROM employees e JOIN departments d
ON e.department_id = d.department_id
GROUP BY ROLLUP (e.department_id, e.job_id, d.location_id); View the Exhibit2 and examine the output
of the command.
Which two statements are true regarding the output? (Choose two.)
A. The value 1 in GRP_LOC means that the LOCATION_ID column is taken into account to generate the
B. The value 1 in GRP_JOB and GRP_LOC means that JOB_ID and LOCATION_ID columns are not taken into account to generate the subtotal.
C. The value 1 in GRP_JOB and GRP_LOC means that the NULL value in JOB_ID and LOCATIONJD columns are taken into account to generate the subtotal.
D. The value 0 in GRP_DEPT, GRPJOB, and GRP_LOC means that DEPARTMENT_ID, JOB_ID, and LOCATION_ID columns are taken into account to generate the subtotal

Correct Answer: BD

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