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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
Total Questions: 309 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 11, 2017

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Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three
predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera’s I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: B
In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following conditions has to be met to use multicast streaming?
A. The network infrastructure has to support multicast
B. The client has to run AXIS Camera Management or AXIS Camera Station
C. The client has to support streaming over RTSP
D. The video device needs to run on firmware version 5.20 or higher
100-105  exam Correct Answer: A
With Axis Coverage Shapes, the designer can
A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.
B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.
C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.
D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.
Correct Answer: D
In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:
A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate
C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio
D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
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Which is true about P-iris?
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D. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that allows the iris to react to rapidly changing lighting
Correct Answer: B
The Axis pixel counter allows a user to
A. Convert pixels to actual distances.
B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.
C. Determine the file size for each video frame.
D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.
100-105  vce Correct Answer: B
Which of the following actions can be taken using the AXIS T8414 Installation Display? (Choose two)
A. Power up a PoE camera
B. Make snapshots
C. Access a camera’s home page
D. Reset a camera to factory default values
E. Read user documentation for cameras
Correct Answer: AB
If a camera is pointed down a hallway with no windows and the color seems “washed out” or faded, which
of the following settings should first be adjusted to improve the image?
A. Decrease image brightness
B. Increase image contrast
C. Uncheck backlight compensation
D. Adjust the exposure settings
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: C
In a switched network with Unicast
A. Data packets are sent only to one recipient no other computers will receive the data.
B. Data packets can only be sent in one direction, for example from the camera to the server.
C. Only one camera at a time can send data packets through the network, to avoid congestion.
D. All data packets are transmitted in a unified size, enabling network optimization.
Correct Answer: A
Who should be responsible for documenting a video surveillance installation?
A. The camera manufacturer
B. The customer’s security manager
C. The customer’s IT department
D. The integrator
100-105  vce Correct Answer: D
A Privacy mask added to Live View (Choose two)
A. Hides parts of the scene.
B. Restricts access to the camera.
C. Can be removed from recorded video.
D. Lowers the bandwidth usage.
E. Can be made into any shape.
Correct Answer: AD
An analog system that should be upgraded to IP using encoders must have the end of the analog signal
terminated. How many Ohm () should that be?
A. 50
B. 70
C. 75
D. 80
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A customer asks for a fixed mini dome with a DC-iris lens. 2.8-10 mm varifocal lens and wide dynamic
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A. AXIS P3301
B. AXIS M3203
C. AXIS Q1604
D. AXIS M5014
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Total Questions: 65 Q&As
Updated on: May 23, 2017
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You work as the systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You have just completed configuring the / Network default view in Mac OS X Server v10.4. Which of the following will see this view?
A. all users
B. unbound DHCP users
C. users connected via VPN
D. bound unmanaged users

Correct Answer: D
What is the effect of selecting “Map All users to nobody” when you configure NFS export settings for a share point?
A. Export of any items or contents to any users will be prevented.
B. The group nobody that is used for NFS access is created.
C. The NFS server treats every user the same as nobody.
D. The NFS server identifies all users by their client settings.

Correct Answer: C
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. You are configuring a user account in Workgroup Manager. Which of the following password types would require that the user authenticates via Mac OS X Server password server?
A. Crypt
B. Shadow
C. Open Directory
D. Kerberos Distribution

Correct Answer: C
Where in the graphical user interface of Mac OS X Server v10.4 would you configure Service Access Control Lists?
A. In Server Admin under the Settings pane associated with general services
B. In Server Admin under the Settings pane associated with each services
C. In Workgroup Manager Accounts User or Group panes
D. In Workgroup Manager Sharing Access pane

Correct Answer: A
You work as a systems administer at Certkiller .com. You want to manage user preference for the login window appearance and for auto-logout on a Mac OS X Server v10.4 computer. You choose the Always option. What effect will this configuration have at startup?
A. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will not be able to access their login preferences in Accounts preferences.
B. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access and make changes to their login preferences in Accounts preferences.
C. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access their login preferences an Accounts preferences but they will not be able to change them.
D. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access their login preferences in Accounts preferences and make changes to them, but their changes will be overridden by the administrator settings at the next startup.

Correct Answer: C
Which of the following tasks does the new Preference Manifests feature in Mac OS X Server v10.4 allow a Workgroup Manager to perform?
A. Access application preferences.
B. Associate preferences to a computer record.
C. Store a common set of preferences in a directory.
D. Read related blocks of managed preferences at user login.

Correct Answer: A
You work as a systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You create a SMB share point on a Mac OS X Server v10.4 server. You configure the system to allow users to create files and folders on the share point. Which of the following statements are true regarding newly created files and folders on the share point? (Choose Two)
A. You can assign permission on shared folders.
B. Sharing files permissions are defined by the umask.
C. You can set shared files to inherit permission from the parent folder.
D. Owner and group always get Read & write permission to shared files.
E. The permissions you set files and folder do not apply to administrators.

Correct Answer: AC
In what order will your Apple File Server attempt to authenticate a user when you choose “Any” as the authentication method for the Apple File Server?
A. Standard first, then Kerberos and then SSH.
B. SSH first, then Standard and then Kerberos.
C. Kerberos first and then Standard.
D. Standard first, then Kerberos.
E. Kerberos first and then SSH.

Correct Answer: C
What is a printer pool in the Mac OS X Server v10.4 print service?
A. A string identifying the printer manufacturer.
B. A utility that identifies the model of the printer that is shared.
C. The protocol used to access network print queues.
D. A queue that can have more than one printer assigned to it.
Correct Answer: D
When should you enable strict locking in Mac OS X Server v10.4? (Choose Two)
A. When you share a volume over FTP.
B. When you share a volume over AFP.
C. When you share a volume over SMB.
D. When you share a volume over SFTP.
Correct Answer: BC


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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 204
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Exam Name Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
File size 75MB
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Which two of the following can be performed using the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager but cannot be performed in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a Blackberry device application load
B. Set activation password
C. Perform a wired synchronization
D. Resend service books
E. Perform a BlackBerry device back up

Correct Answer: AE


When configuring a BlackBerry device for access to Wi-Fi, which two of the following pieces of information are required? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: CE
A BlackBerry device user is moving to a different BlackBerry Domain. What will have to be done to the BlackBerry device before it can be successfully activated over the wireless network? (Choose one.)
A. Perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
B. Perform a security wipe on the BlackBerry device
C. Delete all Desktop service books
D. Have the service provider re-provision the BlackBerry device
E. Remove the Messages icon

Correct Answer: B


In a low memory situation, which of the following will Low Memory Manager do to make more memory available on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one)
A. Copy all media from the BlackBerry device memory to a microSD card
B. Close all currently running applications
C. Delete the least used third party applications
D. Advise that there is not enough memory to perform any operations
E. Other applications will remove low priority data

Correct Answer: E


Which two of the following scenarios explains why Email Settings is grayed out in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
A. A supported email application is installed but not running
B. BlackBerry Desktop Manager was not fully installed
C. The appropriate permissions were not present during the installation of BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. A MAPI profile was not selected
E. No supported email application is installed

Correct Answer: DE


Which three of the following BlackBerry device user management functions can be performed with the BlackBerry Administration Service for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. Create a user account
B. Delete a user account
C. Synchronize a BlackBerry device
D. Install BlackBerry Device Software
E. Assign a BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: ABE  200-105 pdf
A BlackBerry device user indicates they have downloaded updated BlackBerry Device Software and installed it on a computer. When attempting to run the application loader tool for their service provider branded BlackBerry device, the following error message is displayed: No software available for update. Which three of the following options are possible causes for this error message? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Device Software was not properly installed
B. A generic version of the BlackBerry Device Software was installed rather than service provider specific BlackBerry Device Software
C. Service provider specific BlackBerry Device Software was installed rather than the generic BlackBerry Device Software
D. BlackBerry Device Software was properly installed but automatically updated by BlackBerry Updater
E. BlackBerry Device Software for a different BlackBerry device was installed

Correct Answer: ABE
A BlackBerry device user wants to synchronize the BlackBerry device with an organizer application that is not compatible with BlackBerry Desktop Manager. However, the vendor of this application has software that adds this functionality to BlackBerry Desktop Manager. What does the user need to do in BlackBerry Desktop Manager to enable the functionality? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new application icon for the organizer application
B. Configure Add-ins from within the Synchronize application
C. Run the application loader tool to install the software to the BlackBerry device
D. Enable advanced synchronization support in iloptcfg.cfg
E. Clear the targeted organizer data (PIM) database on the BlackBerry device using the advanced backup and restore tool
Correct Answer: B




A user BlackBerry device powered down spontaneously, and is now displaying the following error:
Error Code 507
Which two of the following steps should a system administrator use to troubleshoot this error? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and perform a fresh synchronization
B. Perform a hard reset of the BlackBerry device and see if the error code persists
C. Obtain a replacement SIM card and see if the BlackBerry device will start up
D. Connect the BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and run the application loader tool to reload the BlackBerry Device Software
E. Attempt a Bluetooth connection to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and then synchronize that way

Correct Answer: BD



Which of the following indicates the best signal on a BlackBerry device Located under Options > Status > Signal? (Choose one.)
A. -85mhz
B. -200dbm
D. +104
E. -85dbm

Correct Answer: E
A BlackBerry device user calls in because the enterprise activation of a new BlackBerry device is stopping at Activating. Which two of the following steps should be followed by a support representative in order to help the user? (Choose two.)
A. Tell the user to contact their Internet service provider
B. Check provisioning and if it incorrect educate the user on the required provisioning services
C. Have the system administrator remove and re-add the user to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Verify that the user is entering the activation password exactly as provided
E. Have the user perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: BD



The latest version of the BlackBerry Desktop Software is typically available from which two of the following locations? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry website
B. The wireless service provider BlackBerry device downloads site
C. The CD-ROM included with the BlackBerry device
D. A third party download website
E. The BlackBerry device support forums

Correct Answer: AB

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Vendor: IBM
Exam Code: C2090-930
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Modeler Professional v3
Certification Provider: IBM
Total Questions: 60 Q&A
Updated on: Apr 07, 2017

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Exam A
A system administrator wants to limit the BlackBerry device resources that a third-party application may be able to access. What are three resources that an application control policy can deny or allow a third-party application to access?

(Choose three.)
A. Initiating phone calls or retrieving phone logs on the BlackBerry device
B. Accessing the microSD memory card on a BlackBerry device
C. Sending and receiving email messages on the BlackBerry device
D. Accessing the Wi-Fi radio on a Wi-Fi enabled BlackBerry device
E. Accessing the GPS APIs on a BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 2
Which three components are required for a BlackBerry device user to send and receive S/MIME encrypted email messages? (Choose three.)
A. A BlackBerry Enterprise Server that is enabled for S/MIME email messaging B. BlackBerry Desktop Manager installed with Certificate Synchronization
C. The BlackBerry device user’s private key stored on the BlackBerry device or the BlackBerry Smart Card Reader
D. The S/MIME Support Package installed on the BlackBerry device
E. The S/MIME Support Package installed on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: ACD
A system administrator has put an application control policy in place that prevents any application from accessing the Bluetooth Serial Port Profile API. The organization decides to change the requirements so that access to the Bluetooth Serial Port Profile API will be permitted for all applications. The system administrator has modified the application control policy to allow access to the Bluetooth Serial Port Profile API. Which statement is true about the time frame in which the application control policy will be sent to the BlackBerry devices? (Choose one.)
A. The change may take up to four hours to push to the BlackBerry devices.
B. The change will take effect when the system administrator resends the IT policy to the BlackBerry devices.
C. The change will be immediate as the policy change is automatically sent to the BlackBerry devices.
D. The change time frame will be custom as the system administrator is prompted to choose the change interval.
E. The change will be immediate only if the BlackBerry device users request a policy update.

Correct Answer: C
Which type of database replication is supported in the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution? (Choose one.)
A. Transactional
B. Analytical processing
C. Merge
D. Snapshot
E. Architectural

Correct Answer: A
What is the security level of the SNMP community name used for SNMP monitoring of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server when using the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose one.)
A. Read-only
B. Private
C. Public
D. Secure
E. Restricted

Correct Answer: A
The name of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is server02. The Agent ID for the BlackBerry device user is . What is the name of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server log file where browsing information should be found? (Choose one.)
A. Server02_ctrl_01_20071201_0001.txt
B. Server02_disp_02_20071201_0001.txt
C. Server02_magt_02_20071201_0001.txt
D. Server02_mdss_01_20071201_0001.txt
E. Server02_mdat_01_20071201_0001.txt

Correct Answer: E
Which three tasks can be performed using the BlackBerry User Administration tool? (Choose three.)
A. Set an automatically generated enterprise activation password.
B. Set a manual enterprise activation password.
C. Configure the expiry time for an enterprise activation password.
D. Set an enterprise activation password for a user group.
E. Determine if an enterprise activation password has been set.
F. Set enterprise activation passwords for multiple BlackBerry device users.

Correct Answer: BCF
A company utilizing a segmented network structure recently installed the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, configured it to use the TLS protocol for Microsoft Windows Messenger on its own server, and placed it in a network segment from the Microsoft Live Communications Server. Which port must be open on the internal firewall to allow TLS traffic? (Choose one.)
A. 5061
B. 5060
C. 443
D. 8443
E. 1533

Correct Answer: A
What will prevent an IT policy from being successfully applied to a BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Different key in the BlackBerry Configuration Database than what is contained in the IT policy
B. A BlackBerry Enterprise Server that differs from the one that sent the original IT policy
C. A Desktop [CMIME] service book that fails to be delivered to the BlackBerry device
D. An original IT policy name on the BlackBerry device that differs from the new IT policy being applied
E. The IT policy being applied to a group that excludes the BlackBerry device user
Correct Answer: A

Which type of data packet is being sent when the CMIME service book is used? (Choose one.)
A. Instant messaging
B. Address book
C. Calendar
D. Email message
E. BlackBerry MDS
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11

WLAN configuration sets are managed in an environment using BlackBerry Manager. At which level in BlackBerry Manager are WLAN configurations created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. Group
C. User
D. Device
E. Domain

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Number: 300-085 CAPPS
Associated Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Duration 75 Minutes: (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages:  English
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There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system
management interface (SMI).
Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?

A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.
B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA is for customers.
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D. Old hardware and software (Pre ?5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and software
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Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit. Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group 50?

A. Display board CLAN10
B. List node-name all
C. List ip-address nodes
D. List ip-interface nodes

Correct Answer: B
Communication Manager Backups are done through the system management interface (SMI). Which three statements about the Communication Manager backup function are correct? (Choose three) Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com
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C. The backup function can encrypt the file with a pass phrase.
D. The backup is done dynamically and cannot be scheduled in advance.
E. The full Backup option does not do Save Transaction Command Automatically before creating the backup file.

Correct Answer: BCE
117-201 exam QUESTION 4
You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media Gateway and
a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and MM71 in the slot V2,
and an MM712 in the slot V3.
Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?

A. MM710
B. MM712
C. MGP on the media gateway
D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)

Correct Answer: D
The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one administered
telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office telephone and one outside
cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to es ?in order to use this functionality:
Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin. Which command do you use to verify the field settings?

A. System-parameters features
B. System-parameters customer-options
C. System-parameters wireless
D. System-parameters converge-forwarding

Correct Answer: B
A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to “point” to Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com
the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension, you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was used on each log-on attempt.
You look up the user’s information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the security code field is.

A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.
B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.
C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.
D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.

Correct Answer: A
You want a user’s station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only. Which station configuration will achieve this?
A. Assign COR 11 to user’ station, In COR11. Set COR-to COR calling permission = `n’ for all except COR 10. Assign COR to 5605 and 5608. Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.
B. The FRL = 7to user’s station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608. Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser
C. Assign COR 10 to user’s station. In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = `n’ for all except. Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608. Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.
D. The FRL = 5 to user’s station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608. Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.

Correct Answer: A

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Total Questions: 239

Test Number: 100-105

Vendor Name: CISCO

Cert Name: CCNA

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Question: 1

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

  1. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
  2. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
  3. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
  4. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
  5. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: A, B, E   


Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet—typically 10BaseT—is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps—at most.

Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.



Question: 2

Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?

  1. application
  2. session
  3. transport
  4. network
  5. data link
  6. physical

Answer: D   


Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses network address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address of the next hop device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network address remains the same.


Question: 3

Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?

  1. Internet layer
  2. transport layer
  3. application layer
  4. network access layer

Answer: D   


The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model.

Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.



Question: 4

Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?

  1. TFTP
  2. DNS
  3. FTP
  4. SNMP
  5. RIP

Answer: C   


TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established–the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered–before the message can be delivered.

TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release.

Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.



Question: 5

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?

  1. broadcast domains
  2. repeater domains
  3. Ethernet collisions
  4. signal amplification
  5. Ethernet broadcasts

Answer: C    300-075 vce



Question: 6

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?

  3. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
  4. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
  5. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
  6. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4

Answer: E   


Question: 7

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?

  1. abcd.1123.0045
  3. aabb.5555.2222
  5. abcd.2246.0035

Answer: E   


For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.

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2017 Actual 400-101 Exam Questions‎ | Get Cisco 400-101 Dumps

CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam Version 5.0 (400-101) Exam Outline Topics

 400-101 pdf

Cisco CCIE Routing & Switching Written Exam (400-101) version 5.0 is a two-hour test with 90-110 questions to ensure that the professionals have the expertise to: configure, validate and troubleshoot network infrastructure complex society; and understand how to interpret the infrastructure components; and translated functional requirements specific device configurations. The 400-101 pdf  is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included in the test. However, other related 400-101 exam topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Questions No:1
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf
If you change the Spanning Tree Protocol from pvst to rapid-pvst, what is the effect on the

interface Fa0/1 port state?
A. It transitions to the listening state, and then the forwarding state.
B. It transitions to the learning state and then the forwarding state.
C. It transitions to the blocking state, then the learning state, and then the forwarding state.
D. It transitions to the blocking state and then the forwarding state.
Answer: C

Questions No:2
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf

Which configuration is missing that would enable SSH access on a router that is running Cisco IOS XE Software?

A. int Gig0/0/0 management-interface
B. class-map ssh-class match access-group protect-ssh policy-map control-plane-in class ssh-class police 80000 conform transmit exceed drop control-plane service-policy input control-plane-in 
C. control-plane host management-interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 allow ssh
D. interface Gig0/0/0 ip access-group protect-ssh in The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
Answer: C   300-075 vce

Questions No:3
Which two options are causes of out-of-order packets? (Choose two.)
A. a routing loop
B. a router in the packet flow path that is intermittently dropping packets
C. high latency
D. packets in a flow traversing multiple paths through the network
E. some packets in a flow being process-switched and others being interrupt-switched on a transit router
Answer: D,E
Questions No:4
A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but
attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of
this problem?
A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached.
D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.
Answer: D
Questions No:5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What

is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
Answer: D

Questions No:6
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf
Which statement is true?
A. It is impossible for the destination interface to equal the source interface.
B. NAT on a stick is performed on interface Et0/0.
C. There is a potential routing loop.
D. This output represents a UDP flow or a TCP flow.
Answer: C

Questions No:7

Which three conditions can cause excessive unicast flooding? (Choose three.)
A. Asymmetric routing
B. Repeated TCNs
C. The use of HSRP
D. Frames sent to FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
E. MAC forwarding table overflow
F. The use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
Answer: A,B,E

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In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by _________.
A. Visually inspecting them for damage.
B. Replacing them with known-good parts in any order.
C. Adding more known-good parts in a specified order.
D. Replacing them with known-good parts in specified order.

Correct Answer: D
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Doors)?
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. Logic Board
E. Power Cable
F. Power Supply
G. Front Panel Board
H. Processor with Heatsink

Correct Answer: C
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of ______ within computers.
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow

Correct Answer: A
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to_____.
A. Boot the system into Mac OS 9.
B. Boot the system into Mac OS X.
C. Boot the system into Open Firmware diagnostics.
D. Hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display.

Correct Answer: D
You are using component isolation to troubleshoot a Power Mac G4 (Quicksilver). You have already reduced the computer to the appropriate minimal configuration. You have just installed a known-good video card and have attached a known-good external VGA display to it. Upon startup, you see a flashing question mark on the VGA display, but you hear no startup chime. What signals or power could be missing to cause this problem?
A. Timing signals to the processor through the logic board.
B. Power to the memory subsystem through the logic board.
C. Backup battery voltage to the PMU through the logic board.
D. Audio signals to the speaker through the front panel board.

Correct Answer: D
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wriest strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 75%-90%
D. 90%-100%
Correct Answer: C  200-120 exam
Which FOUR of the following actions helps reduce the risk of damage from ESD? (Choose four)
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.
Correct Answer: ABDE
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention? Select all that apply.
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the CRT display of an eMac.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a cracking noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
A customer states that her iMac (Flat Panel) display is constantly showing a bright all-white screen. You connect an external VGA display to the iMac (Flat Panel) and confirm that the problem is not with the operating system or the logic board. Based upon your knowledge of LCD display, what would be the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Failed LCD module
B. Failed power supply
C. Failed inverter board
D. Corrupt PMU

Correct Answer: A

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  • Chapter 1 Foundations of Querying
  • Chapter 2 Getting Started with the SELECT Statement
  • Chapter 3 Filtering and Sorting Data
  • Chapter 4 Combining Sets
  • Chapter 5 Grouping and Windowing
  • Chapter 6 Querying Full-Text Data
  • Chapter 7 Querying and Managing XML Data
  • Chapter 8 Creating Tables and Enforcing Data Integrity
  • Chapter 9 Designing and Creating Views, Inline Functions, and Synonyms
  • Chapter 10 Inserting, Updating, and Deleting Data
  • Chapter 11 Other Data Modification Aspects
  • Chapter 12 Implementing Transactions, Error Handling, and Dynamic SQL
  • Chapter 13 Designing and Implementing T-SQL Routines
  • Chapter 14 Using Tools to Analyze Query Performance
  • Chapter 15 Implementing Indexes and Statistics
  • Chapter 16 Understanding Cursors, Sets, and Temporary Tables
  • Chapter 17 Understanding Further Optimization Aspects
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You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application. The application
contains a table that has the following definition:

ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)

You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and
ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?

A. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD ItemsInStore – ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemslnWarehouse);

Correct Answer: A Explanation
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.

You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.

Correct Answer: D Explanation

You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.

Correct Answer: I Explanation
Explanation: Reference:

You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: E Explanation

You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerID.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed.

Results must include customers who have not placed any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
B. SELECT CustomerName, CrderDate FROM Customers JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers CROSS JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID

Correct Answer: D Explanation

You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation:  700-501 vce

Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM ( SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION ALL SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders ) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM ( SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders ) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION ALL SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders

Correct Answer: A Explanation

You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?

Correct Answer: B Explanation

You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore ( [Id] hierarchyid, [Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL ) GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable

Correct Answer: A Explanation

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. You need to reduce fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH DROP EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REORGANIZE
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD

Correct Answer: B Explanation

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One of my goals is to become a Microsoft Certified Solutions Expert: Business Intelligence. I decided to start from scratch and take the three exams required for Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA): SQL Server 2012 to learn as much as possible. It has taken me a lot longer than I thought it would and I’m not there yet, but I’m one step closer to my goal: I passed the 70-461 exam (Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012) in January

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As an administrator of an Open Directory master and its replicas, which command would you use to force a replication?
A. ldapd
B. syncd
C. slapconfig
D. slapd.access

Correct Answer: C
Mary logs in to Mac OS X v10.4 as an Active Directory user via Apple Active Directory plug-in. A network home folder has been configured for her account. By default, her home folder ________.
A. on the local volume is disabled
B. resides on an auto-mounted AFP volume from Mac OS X Server
C. is stored locally, but an SMB ome is mounted on the desktop
D. resides on the NFS volume provided by the Active Directory domain
Correct Answer: C
Your user accounts are stored on an Active Directory server. Which action is necessary to enable your users to access Mac OS X Server services that require authentication?
A. Start the LDAP server on the Mac OS X Server.
B. Manually create computer accounts on the Active Directory server.
C. Add the Mac OS X Server computer to the Authentication Search Path on the client computers.
D. Configure the Active Directory plug-in on the Mac OS X Server to connect to the Active Directory server.

Correct Answer: D
You are creating a configuration in Directory Access to access an LDAP server. The user accounts on the LDAP server do not include an attribute to specify the location of the home folder. Which mapping for the HomeDirectory attribute would enable the user account to access a home folder that has the same name as the uid value in the LDAP account?
A. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/uid</url></home_dir>
B. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/%uid</url></home_dir>
C. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users</url><path>$uid$</path></home_dir>
D. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/<path>%uid</path></url></home_dir>

Correct Answer: C
Which Open Directory group record attribute is used by access control list (ACL) file permissions?
A. UniqueID
B. GeneratedUID
C. PrimaryGroupID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

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Which command-line utility can be used to remove Kerberos tickets from the cache on a Mac OS X client computer?
A. kdestroy
B. klist -e
C. kinit -r
D. kmod

Correct Answer: A
You need to configure some Mac OS X computers to bind to an LDAP server not running on a Macintosh computer. This is the first time that you have tried to use this LDAP server. What should be your first step?
A. In the LDAP plug-in in Directory Access, create mappings to supplement required user account attributes that are not on the LDAP database.
B. Use an LDAP browsing tool to verify the connection settings and identify the structure and format of the data stored on the server.
C. Create a new LDAP configuration in Directory Access and determine the connection settings through experimentation.
D. Have the server system administrator modify the schema to support missing attributes that are required by Mac OS X.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
Which Open Directory user record attribute is used by standard BSD file permissions?
A. naprivs
B. UniqueID
C. GeneratedUID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B

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