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Exam 70-461: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-461 exam

  • Chapter 1 Foundations of Querying
  • Chapter 2 Getting Started with the SELECT Statement
  • Chapter 3 Filtering and Sorting Data
  • Chapter 4 Combining Sets
  • Chapter 5 Grouping and Windowing
  • Chapter 6 Querying Full-Text Data
  • Chapter 7 Querying and Managing XML Data
  • Chapter 8 Creating Tables and Enforcing Data Integrity
  • Chapter 9 Designing and Creating Views, Inline Functions, and Synonyms
  • Chapter 10 Inserting, Updating, and Deleting Data
  • Chapter 11 Other Data Modification Aspects
  • Chapter 12 Implementing Transactions, Error Handling, and Dynamic SQL
  • Chapter 13 Designing and Implementing T-SQL Routines
  • Chapter 14 Using Tools to Analyze Query Performance
  • Chapter 15 Implementing Indexes and Statistics
  • Chapter 16 Understanding Cursors, Sets, and Temporary Tables
  • Chapter 17 Understanding Further Optimization Aspects
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QUESTION 1
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application. The application
contains a table that has the following definition:

CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)

You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and
ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?

A. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD ItemsInStore – ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemslnWarehouse);

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
QUESTION 2
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.

You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

QUESTION 3
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.

Correct Answer: I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 4
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerID.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed.

Results must include customers who have not placed any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
B. SELECT CustomerName, CrderDate FROM Customers JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers CROSS JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

QUESTION 6
You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:  700-501 vce
Reference:

 

QUESTION 7
Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM ( SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION ALL SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders ) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM ( SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders ) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION ALL SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

 

QUESTION 8
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

 

QUESTION 9
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore ( [Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL ) GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore ( [Id] hierarchyid, [Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL ) GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore ( [Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE, [Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL ) GO

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

 

QUESTION 10
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. You need to reduce fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH DROP EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REORGANIZE
C. ALTER INDEX ALL ON OrderDetail REBUILD
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

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QUESTION 49
As an administrator of an Open Directory master and its replicas, which command would you use to force a replication?
A. ldapd
B. syncd
C. slapconfig
D. slapd.access

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Mary logs in to Mac OS X v10.4 as an Active Directory user via Apple Active Directory plug-in. A network home folder has been configured for her account. By default, her home folder ________.
A. on the local volume is disabled
B. resides on an auto-mounted AFP volume from Mac OS X Server
C. is stored locally, but an SMB ome is mounted on the desktop
D. resides on the NFS volume provided by the Active Directory domain
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Your user accounts are stored on an Active Directory server. Which action is necessary to enable your users to access Mac OS X Server services that require authentication?
A. Start the LDAP server on the Mac OS X Server.
B. Manually create computer accounts on the Active Directory server.
C. Add the Mac OS X Server computer to the Authentication Search Path on the client computers.
D. Configure the Active Directory plug-in on the Mac OS X Server to connect to the Active Directory server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
You are creating a configuration in Directory Access to access an LDAP server. The user accounts on the LDAP server do not include an attribute to specify the location of the home folder. Which mapping for the HomeDirectory attribute would enable the user account to access a home folder that has the same name as the uid value in the LDAP account?
A. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/uid</url></home_dir>
B. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/%uid</url></home_dir>
C. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users</url><path>$uid$</path></home_dir>
D. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/<path>%uid</path></url></home_dir>

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which Open Directory group record attribute is used by access control list (ACL) file permissions?
A. UniqueID
B. GeneratedUID
C. PrimaryGroupID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B   200-355 dumps
QUESTION 54
Which command-line utility can be used to remove Kerberos tickets from the cache on a Mac OS X client computer?
A. kdestroy
B. klist -e
C. kinit -r
D. kmod

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
You need to configure some Mac OS X computers to bind to an LDAP server not running on a Macintosh computer. This is the first time that you have tried to use this LDAP server. What should be your first step?
A. In the LDAP plug-in in Directory Access, create mappings to supplement required user account attributes that are not on the LDAP database.
B. Use an LDAP browsing tool to verify the connection settings and identify the structure and format of the data stored on the server.
C. Create a new LDAP configuration in Directory Access and determine the connection settings through experimentation.
D. Have the server system administrator modify the schema to support missing attributes that are required by Mac OS X.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
Which Open Directory user record attribute is used by standard BSD file permissions?
A. naprivs
B. UniqueID
C. GeneratedUID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B

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Everything You Need to Know About Cisco’s 300-115 Exam

Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Jan 05, 2017
Q&As: 201
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QUESTION 8
Where do you find the Mac OS X v.10.2 Connect To Server command?
A. System Preferences
B. Network Utility
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Finder/File/Connect To Server
E. Finder/Go/Connect To Server

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
What are the different types of user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. root
B. Administrator
C. Child
D. User
E. Limited
F. sudo
G. Windows Only

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
In Finder, how do you set individual user permissions and privileges, other than the standard user permissions? Choose two.
A. Finder/File/Show Info
B. Finder/View/Show Info
C. Command + I
D. Command + S
E. Favorites
F. Apple Menu/Options

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Under each user’s home folder, which folders are visible, contents and all, to every user? Choose all that apply.
A. Desktop
B. Library
C. Shared
D. Documents
E. Inbox
F. Outbox
G. Public
H. Sites

Correct Answer: GH     300-206 exam
QUESTION 12
In Mac OS X v. 10.2 where are the fonts stored? Choose two.
A. Library/Fonts
B. Services/Fonts
C. Resources/Fonts
D. Applications/Utilities/Fonts
E. Home folder/Public/Fonts
F. Home folder/Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 13
How can you access the command line in Mac OS X v.10.2? Choose all that apply.
A. Applications/Terminal
B. Applications/Darwin
C. Apple Menu/Command Line
D. During startup, hold down Command + S
E. At the Login window, type in >console
F. At the Login window, type in >local
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
What is the code name for the Mac OS X v.10.2 GUI?
A. Jaguar
B. Panther
C. Darwin
D. Aqua
E. iDisplay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15

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Exam QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 2
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C

100-101 Dumps
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C   117-201 exam
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222

D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 6
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AD

200-120 exam
QUESTION 11
Refer to the graphic.

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase.
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Refer to exhibit:

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 16
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Correct Answer: AE

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300-206 Exam

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QUESTION 8
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three commands can be used to harden a switch? (Choose three.)
A. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
B. switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping
C. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 900
D. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree guard root
E. switch(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard disable
F. switch(config-if)# no cdp enable
Correct Answer: BDF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What are three features of the Cisco ASA 1000V? (Choose three.)
A. cloning the Cisco ASA 1000V
B. dynamic routing
C. the Cisco VNMC policy agent
D. IPv6
E. active/standby failover
F. QoS
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 300-101 exam
QUESTION 12
If the Cisco ASA 1000V has too few licenses, what is its behavior?
A. It drops all traffic.
B. It drops all outside-to-inside packets.
C. It drops all inside-to-outside packets.
D. It passes the first outside-to-inside packet and drops all remaining packets.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

300-206 Exam
QUESTION 13
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices.

The user needs read-write access to policies.

The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will the administrator assign to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS access?
A. sslconfig
B. sslciphers
C. tlsconifg
D. certconfig
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What is the CLI command to enable SNMPv3 on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?
A. snmpconfig
B. snmpenable
C. configsnmp
D. enablesnmp
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://cisco300-101dumps.hatenablog.com/
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list
only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

QUESTION 8
Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24?
A. 10.9.1.0/24
B. 10.8.0.0/24
C. 10.8.0.0/16
D. 10.8.0.0/23
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to
24 and less than or equal to 24. This translate to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
Only the choice of 10.8.0.0.24 matches this.

QUESTION 9
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output. Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?
A. OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B. The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C. An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
D. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/route2.html
show ipv6 traffic Field Descriptions
Field Description
source- Number of source-routed packets.
routed
truncated Number of truncated packets.
format Errors that can result from checks performed on header fields, errors the version number, and packet length.
not a Message sent when IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled.
router

Reference:
300-101 exam

QUESTION 10
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit
MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The
16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the an EUI-48 MAC address.
Here is an example showing how a the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.

Once the above is done, we have a fully functional EUI-64 format address. Reference:
QUESTION 11
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:http://www.itcertlab.com/2016-download-ccna-100-101-pdf-files.html
Explanation: Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified IPv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message. RA messages typically include the following information:

One or more onlink IPv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure their IPv6 addresses
Lifetime information for each prefix included in the advertisement

Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be completed

Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default router)

Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it originates Reference:
QUESTION 12
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
Traffic from R1 to R61 s Loopback address is load shared between R1-R2-R4-R6 and R1-R3- R5-R6 paths. What is the ratio of traffic over each path?
A. 1:1
B. 1:5

C. 6:8
D. 19:80 Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
First, find the IP address of the loopback0 interface on R6:
We see that it is 150.1.6.6, so we issue the “show ip route 150.1.6.6” command from R1 and see this:

Notice the “traffic share count” shows 19 for the first path, and 80 for the second path.
QUESTION 13
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.

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QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 16
What is the standard Layer 3 DSCP media packet value that should be set for Cisco TelePresence endpoints?
A. CS3 (24)
B. EF (46)
C. AF41 (34)
D. CS4 (32)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
When you configure QoS on VCS, which settings do you apply if traffic through the VCS should be tagged with DSCP AF41?
A. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 32.
B. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 34.
C. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 34.
D. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 32.
E. Set QoS mode to ToS and tag value to 32.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What is the default DSCP/PHB for video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
The administrator at Company X is getting user reports of inconsistent quality on video calls between endpoints registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The administrator runs a wire trace while a video call is taking place and sees that the packets are not set to AF41 for desktop video as they should be. Where should the administrator look next to confirm that the correct DSCP markings are being set?
A. on the MGCP router at the edge of both networks
B. the service parameters in the VCS Control
C. the QoS service parameter in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. on the actual Cisco phone itself because the DSCP setting is not part of its configuration file downloaded at registration
E. The setting cannot be changed for video endpoints that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, but only when they are registered to the VCS Control.

Correct Answer: C  http://www.certadept.com/cisco-352-001-pdf.html
QUESTION 20
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interface Fastethernet0/1? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2 mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 21
When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which two options are valid service parameter settings that are used to set up proper video QoS behavior across the Cisco Unified Communications Manager infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. DSCP for Video Calls when RSVP Fails
B. Default Intraregion Min Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
C. Default Interregion Max Video Call Bit Rate (Includes Audio)
D. DSCP for Video Signaling
E. DSCP for Video Signaling when RSVP Fails
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 23
Which action is performed by the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway with SRST configured, when it loses connectivity with the primary and backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers?
A. The gateway continues to make an attempt to connect to the backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.
B. The gateway falls back to the H.323 protocol for further call processing.
C. The gateway continues with the MGCP call processing without any interruption.
D. The gateway waits for the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to come alive.
E. All MGCP call processing is interrupted until the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers are online.
F. The MGCP calls are queued up until the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers are online.

Correct Answer: B  http://www.maeeonline.org/cisco-300-075-dumps-download/
QUESTION 24
Which option is a benefit of implementing CFUR?
A. CFUR is designed to initiate TEHO to reduce toll charges.
B. CFUR can prevent phones from unregistering.
C. CFUR can reroute calls placed to a temporarily unregistered destination phone.
D. CFUR eliminates the need for COR on an ISR.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change is needed to enable NANP international dialing during MGCP fallback?
A. Change the dial peer to dial-peer voice 901 voip.
B. Change the dial peer to dial-peer voice 9011 pots.
C. Add the command prefix 011 to the dial peer.
D. Add the command prefix 9011 to the dial peer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which command is needed to utilize local dial peers on an MGCP-controlled ISR during an SRST failover?
A. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
B. telephony-service
C. dialplan-pattern
D. isdn overlap-receiving
E. voice-translation-rule

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which three commands are mandatory to implement SRST for five Cisco IP Phones? (Choose three.)
A. call-manager-fallback
B. max-ephones
C. keepalive
D. limit-dn
E. ip source-address

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 28
Which commands are needed to configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode?
A. telephony-service and srst mode
B. telephony-service and moh
C. call-manager-fallback and srst mode
D. call-manager-fallback and voice-translation

Correct Answer: A   200-105 pdf
QUESTION 29
You need to verify if the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway is enabled and active. Which command should you use for this purpose?
A. show running-config
B. show fallback-mgcp
C. show gateway
D. show ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
E. show running-config gateway
F. show fallback-mgcp ccm-manager

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Network Security Threat Landscape
1. Which of the following is not a motivation of malicious actors?
a. Disruption
b. Bug bounty awards
c. Financial
d. Geopolitical
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a. Directed
b. Cached
c. Reflected
d. Amplified

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a. There are more application choices when using UDP.
b. UDP requires a three-way handshake to establish a connection.
c. UDP is much more easily spoofed.
d. TCP cannot be used in DDoS attacks.

4. Which of the following is leveraged in social engineering?
a. Software vulnerabilities
b. Human nature
c. Protocol violations
d. Application issues

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a. Phone scams
b. Phishing
c. Denial of service (DoS)
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a. Two-factor authentication
b. Information classification
c. Infrastructure hardening
d. Physical security

7. Which tool provides the most granular information to help in the identification of
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a. NetFlow
b. Syslog
c. Packet capture
d. Server logs

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a. Detailed data about each packet on the network
b. Troubleshooting messages about the network devices
c. Information on the types of traffic traversing the network
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a. NetFlow
b. IPS events
c. Routing Information Base (RIB)
d. Packet captures

10. Which type of data is not often attractive to malicious actors?
a. Personally identifiable information (PII)
b. Training schedules
c. Credit and debit card data
d. Intellectual property (IP)

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