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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1) You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data. You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site. You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed. What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
70-463 exam 
Answer: A
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night. The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large. If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value. The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50. Many values are incorrectly matched. You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance. What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS). You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model. Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically. You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
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Answer: B,F
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package named DataFeed interacts with an external vendor data feed. The package is executed several times a day, either as part of other packages’ control flow or by itself. The external data feed is unreliable because network failures and slow response times are frequent. The package is currently deployed
on the file system. To analyze the reliability of the external data feed, you must collect execution data. Every time the DataFeed package is executed, the following information must be logged:
Start Time
End Time
Execution Result
Execution Duration
You need to design a logging solution that meets the requirements by using the least amount of administrative and development effort. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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QUESTION NO: 5
Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she’d like to optimize her ad for conversion.
D. Google won’t automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
70-463 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network. 
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the Content Network with ‘Relevant pages across the entire network’ in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement. Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
You’re reviewing a campaign you’ve created for your company with your manager. The manager is curious about the budget setting on the campaign’s tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It’s the maximum amount you’ll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A technician would like to ensure that when users connect to a web server in a server farm, they connect
to the server with the lowest CPU utilization. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?
A. Load balancing
B. High availability
C. Virtual machine
D. Reverse proxy
SK0-003 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Changing the boot order of devices can be configured from which of the following?
A. DIP switches
B. BIOS
C. Chipset
D. Control Panel
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an advantage of using non-ECC memory over ECC memory?
A. ECC is faster than non-ECC
B. Non-ECC is faster than ECC
C. Non-ECC is more expensive than ECC
D. Non-ECC checks for memory errors
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Before installing a new device, a technician checks to make sure the device is on the HCL. Which of the
following is the advantage of having an HCL device?
A. It is supported by other vendors
B. Increases performance
C. Decreases cost
D. Meets vendor standards
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of
memory supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
A technician has installed an additional NIC on a server. Which of the following can now be setup?
A. Teaming
B. VLANs
C. Port forwarding
D. Full duplex
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
A technician is setting up a network and wants to automatically assign IP addresses. Which of the
following will need to be configured to automatically assign IP addresses?
A. WINS
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. NTP
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A technician is building a Windows 2008 server and has installed a motherboard, processor, and power
supply. Which of the following optical drives should the technician install?
A. Flash Drive
B. DVD-RW
C. CD-ROM
D. SSD
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Typically, warranty information can be found on a vendor’s website by looking up which of the following?
A. Original hardware configuration
B. Service manual
C. Service tag
D. Model number
SK0-003 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
When purchasing a UPS for a server room, which of the following are important factors to consider?
(Select TWO).
A. Network card configuration
B. Remote access procedures
C. Estimated runtime
D. Maximum load
E. Power cord length
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
A new server must be configured to provide fault tolerant connectivity to the DMZ and the backend
database. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. A total of six NICs: two pairs of teamed NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
B. One NIC can be configured with VLANs for the DMZ and backend database.

C. A total of eight NICs to be teamed with the appropriate VLANs configured for the DMZ and backend
database.
D. A total of four NICs: two NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
SK0-003 dump Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE about a caching name server? (Select TWO).
A. They must have a trusted SSL certificate
B. They can be authoritative
C. They cannot be load-balanced
D. They can be recursive
E. They require DHCP
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13
A technician needs to deploy a new Internet facing web server and internal database server. The web
server will use the database backend to retrieve shopping cart information. Which of the following
configuration utilizes the LEAST resources?
A. Both servers will be virtualized on the same host server. The web server will be configured with an
Internet facing NIC connected to the host’s hardware NIC and a backend NIC connected to a virtual
switch. The database server NIC will be connected to the same virtual switch.
B. The database server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with one physical NIC.
The web server will be installed on new hardware and will utilize two physical NICs to separate
backend traffic from frontend Internet communication.
C. The web server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with two physical NICs, one
NIC for backend and one for backend communication. The database server will be installed on new
hardware to ensure maximum performance.
D. Both servers will be virtualized on a pair of redundant host servers. Both the web server and the
database server will share the same hardware resources. The web server will be configured with one
NIC for both frontend and backend communication and the databases server will also have one NIC.
SK0-003 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that
the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the
technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.

SK0-003 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION 18
Which executable is used to create tables in the LANDesk?database?
A. DBBUILD.EXE
B. DBMERGE.EXE
C. DBREPAIR.EXE
D. COREDBUTIL.EXE
210-250 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Where can you change the database connection information for LANDesk?Management Suite? (Choose
two.)
A. in the ODBC System DSN
B. in the Management Suite console in the Configure Services utility
C. HKLM\Software\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\Core\Connections\Local
D. HKLM\Software\Intel\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\Core\Connections\Local

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which two directories contain the trusted certificate hash file (<hashname>.0)? (Choose two.)
A. Keys
B. Utilities
C. LDMain
D. LDLogon
E. LANDesk?
210-250 dump Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 21
Which four submenus appear under the Standard LANDesk Agent menu in Client Configuration in the
Client Setup tool? (Choose four.)
A. Local Scheduler
B. Inventory Scanner
C. Bandwidth Detection
D. Software Distribution
E. Client Reboot Options
F. Application Policy Management
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 22
What is the default temporary install directory used during client setup?
A. %temp%
B. C:\$ldcfg$
C. C:\$ldclient$
D. %windir%\temp
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
What are the four options for Start the Inventory Scan in Client Configuration? (Choose four.)
A. frequency
B. run as service
C. local scheduler
D. IP address change
E. manually from device
F. start from the Startup folder
G. at startup using the Run key Registry setting
Correct Answer: ADEG
QUESTION 24
What is the purpose of the registry values contained in the
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\WinClient registry key?
A. It contains video driver information used by the Remote Control agent.
B. It specifies the database connection strings that point to the database.
C. It contains the date the client was last configured and the path it is installed to.

D. It contains a list of LANDesk?components that have been installed on a workstation.
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
You have configured the inventory scanner in your client configuration named “Accounting” to run at
startup from the Run Registry key. You want to modify your “Accounting” client configuration to display the
GUI when the inventory scanner runs at startup.
Which file should you edit to make the changes permanent for this client configuration only?
A. LDCLIENT.INI
B. NTSTACFG.IN#
C. ACCOUNTING.INI
D. ACCOUNTING.IN#
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Your network consists of two sites connected by a high-speed WAN link with a single LANDesk?
Management Suite domain.
Login scripts have been used for LANDesk client deployment.
Several days ago you modified your default client configuration. Workstations at the main site are
reconfigured with the new settings, but the remote site workstations are not.
Why haven’t the remote site workstations been reconfigured?
A. WSCFG32.EXE was not run with the appropriate command line switches.
B. The scheduler service was not configured with the proper domain credentials.
C. The login script at the remote site was not updated with the new client configuration.
D. The Client Deployment Service Center at the remote site was not updated with the new client
configuration.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which command line parameter of WSCFG32.EXE allows you to specify which client configuration file to
use?
A. /C
B. /F
C. /I
D. /N
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
How must the LANDesk?client be initially deployed to a Macintosh client?
A. manually, using WSCFG32.EXE
B. manually, from the INSTALL\MAC folder
C. manually, from the LDLOGON\MAC folder
D. by scheduling the EXE package created in the Client Setup tool
210-250 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. He is responsible for securing all 15
servers of the company. To successfully accomplish the task, he enables the hardware and
software firewalls and disables all unnecessary services on all the servers. Sales manager of the
company asks Adam to run emulation software on one of the servers that requires the telnet
service to function properly. Adam is concerned about the security of the server, as telnet can be a
very large security risk in an organization. Adam decides to perform some footprinting, scanning,
and penetration testing on the server to checkon the server to check the security. Adam telnets
into the server and writes the following command:
HEAD / HTTP/1.0
After pressing enter twice, Adam gets the following results:

Which of the following tasks has Adam just accomplished?
A. Poisoned the local DNS cache of the server.
B. Submitted a remote command to crash the server.
C. Grabbed the banner.
D. Downloaded a file to his local computer.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
The MBR of a hard disk is a collection of boot records that contain disk information such as disk
architecture, cluster size, and so on. The main work of the MBR is to locate and run necessary
operating system files that are required to run a hard disk. In the context of the operating system,
MBR is also known as the boot loader. Which of the following viruses can infect the MBR of a hard
disk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Stealth
B. Boot sector
C. Multipartite
D. File
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for DataEnet Inc. You want to
investigate e-mail information of an employee of the company. The suspected employee is using
an online e-mail system such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local
computer will you review to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. History folder
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Download folder
D. Cookies folder
210-250 pdf Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Name: Querying Data with Transact-SQL
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QUESTION 40
If loop exists and STP is not enabled, the switch will not operate normally
A. True
B. False
70-761 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.

70-761 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements is not the advantage of STP?
A. STP can manage the redundant links. When the working link is down, network connectivity can be
restored.
B. STP can prevent loops
C. STP can prevent broadcast storm
D. STP can save network bandwidth
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following standards defines STP?
A. 802.1J
B. 802.1X
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1P
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
STP elects ( )
A. One bridge as the Root Bridge and another one as the Backup Root Bridge
B. One bridge as the Root Bridge
C. Two bridges as the Root Bridge
D. One Designated Bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
STP distributes configuration message by sending BPDU packet to each other.
A. True
B. False
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In STP, BPDU packet is carried by ( ).
A. IP packet
B. TCP packet
C. Ethernet frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
In a switching network that has been enabled with STP protocol, the priorities of all the switches are the
same. The MAC address of switch1 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, MAC address of switch2 is 00- e0-fc-00-00-10,
MAC address of switch3 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and MAC address of switch4 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which of
the switches will be elected as the Root Bridge?
A. Switch1

B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
70-761 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A switching network has been enabled with STP protocol. To provide fast access speed to the file server
for most of the users, the switch that is directly connected with file server is configured as the root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU will
time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails, Configuration
BPDU cannot be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following statements about STP is not true?
A. STP can manage redundant links.
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
According to OSI reference model, Layer 2 LAN switch operates at ( ).
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. IP layer
D. Application layer
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
According to the STP protocol, a certain field in the BPDU identifies the root switch. That is, if the BPDU
sent by a switch contains this field, this switch is considered as the root switch. What is this field?
A. Root Identifier
B. Root Path Cost
C. Bridge Identifier
D. Port Identifier
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which are the two parts in the port identifier of the uplink interface on a non-root switch?
A. 1-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
B. 1-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
C. 2-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
D. 2-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
In the network diagram, which switch will be selected as the root switch?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which statements about the PVID on the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. When receiving a packet without the VLAN tag, the interface adds the VLAN tag to the packet and sets
the VID in the tag to the default VLAN ID.
B. When receiving a packet with a VLAN tag, the interface compares the VLAN ID in the tag with the
default VLAN ID. If they are the same, the interface forwards the packets; otherwise, the interface
discards the packets.
C. When the interface sends a packet with a VLAN tag that contains the default VLAN ID, the system
removes the VLAN tag of the packet, and then forwards the packet.
D. None of the above.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 57
Which statement about the hybrid interface is true?
A. A hybrid interface can only be connected to network device.
B. A hybrid interface can only be connected to host.
C. A hybrid interface can be connected to host or network device.
D. A hybrid interface cannot be configured with VLAN ID.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement about MUX VLAN is false?
A. Principal VLAN
B. Subordinate VLAN
C. Subordinate group VLAN
D. Guest VLAN
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three Fibre Channel topologies are used in SAN implementations? (choose three.)
A. arbitrated loop
B. physical
C. switched fabric
D. point-to-point
E. logical
70-774 exam Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a Host Bus Adaptor (HBA)?
A. A compact optical device that connects to switches and transmits and receives data.
B. A device that connects multiple computers together to form a network segment.
C. A non-volatile data storage device.
D. A Fibre Channel interface that connects a computer to a storage network.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
What are two benefits of using snapshots as part of an in-system replication solution? (Choose
two.)
A. Snapshots provide storage-efficient copies of the data.
B. Snapshots create a physical clone of the data.
C. Volumes are restored faster from snapshot copies.
D. Snapshots provide point-in-time data copies.
70-774 dumps Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 4
What are two characteristics of array-based asynchronous remote replication? (Choose two.)
A. It supports server performance under load.
B. It is installed and run on a server.
C. It can be implemented over a WAN.
D. It does not ensure data consistency.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 5
When using IP to transfer data over a network, which protocol re-combines IP packets into the
correct order to re-create the message sent from the source?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. UDP
D. TCP
70-774 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
An online bank wants to improve their environmental credentials by reducing power consumption
and heat output in their data center, but without affecting service levels. Which three strategies
would they use to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Add more data storage.
B. Consolidate existing storage.
C. Reduce data center hotspots.
D. Implement virtualization strategies.
E. Migrate customer data to off-line storage.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 7
Which type of tiered data requires a storage infrastructure that provides reasonable performance
and availability and must recover within 8 hours of a failure?
A. mission-critical data
B. business-critical data
C. nearline data
D. offline data
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which two features help reduce power consumption on a storage system? (Choose two.)
A. on-demand cache partitioning
B. ability to turn off HDDs when not accessed
C. adaptive dual power battery backup
D. dynamic fan speed adjustment
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 9
What is an advantage of cache partitioning?
A. dynamic reallocation of cache resource by performance criteria
B. optimized storage system performance
C. improved security against unauthorized administrative access
D. automated data copy to a secondary partition
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
A large healthcare company wants to implement an object store in their application. Which three
are considered to be an object? (Choose three.)
A. a mirror copy of a data volume
B. an MRI Image file
C. a lab report in pdf format
D. a file services structure of active data
E. an ultrasound video file
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 11
Which two elements are critical to configuring high availability access to storage over a SAN?
(Choose two.)
A. data path management
B. automated path failover
C. diagnosis of performance bottlenecks
D. prioritizing of an application’s server port access
70-774 dumps Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 12
What are the two ways a storage system implements virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. in-band
B. cross-band
C. cascaded
D. out-of-band
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 13
What are two advantages of implementing an Ethernet network in an office environment? (Choose
two.)
A. resource sharing
B. VSAN capabilities
C. centralized management
D. MAC address zoning
70-774 pdf Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
What are two benefits of using performance reporting software? (Choose two).
A. It provides disk subsystem utilization data.
B. It moves elements between storage partitions.
C. It provides workload data for volumes and ports.
D. It migrates data away from storage hot-spots.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which customer type will benefit from a content management platform solution?
A. Customers with a large number of departmental offices in multiple locations.
B. Customers with large numbers of file servers or NAS systems considering an archiving or a
tiering strategy.
C. Customers wanting to improve application availability by reducing downtime caused by
backups.
D. Customers wanting to deploy a structured database for their customer data.
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
Which two statements are correct about array-based data replication? (Choose two.)
A. Write operations to the storage are performed faster.
B. It can run independent of host OS, file system and database.
C. There is only a single current copy of each volume.
D. Data copy volumes can be used offline for development and testing.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
An architect firm wants to simplify how they store and share their designs. The files are high
resolution and will be viewed by many people in the company at their workstations. Each architect
has their own operating system preferences, but the files should be available to all. Which platform
would meet this requirement?
A. a storage system with an iSCSI option installed
B. a storage system with a NAS front-end
C. a storage system with SAS drives and a DAS front-end
D. a storage system that implements a Fibre Channel SAN
70-774 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
A customer has a large number of high performance database servers with DAS. They are
concerned about isolated data and would also like to re-assign unused storage to avoid additional
expenditure and to minimize unexpected loss of access to data. Which solution satisfies the
requirements?
A. Attach all servers directly to their storage.
B. Attach all servers and storage to redundant SAN fabrics.
C. Implement a DAS RAID 5 solution for the database servers.
D. Add a NAS option to the storage and deliver data using file services.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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7.You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine vendors to
order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages in their wine
shops. You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG. EXCR1- Each critical quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition EXCR2- Each critical requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the critical requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and no

more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a valid
number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message Invalid number of bottles if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The 300-135 exam application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message Invalid credit card if invalid credit card data
are given by the user
QUSTION NO: 11
The following is the unique critical quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to get
the number of bottles from the user
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles from
the user Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the requirements
and the single risk item identified in that scenario. Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the REQSEL-4 requirement?
A. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
B. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
C. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the “Invalid number of bottles”
message is displayed
D. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles
300-135 dumps Answer: C
8.The following are the requirements identified as critical :
REQ-SEL-001. The user shall be able to combine all the three products with all the four durations to
define an item to purchase
REQ-SEL-002. The user shall be able to add a maximum of six different items to the shopping cart
REQ-PUR-001. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using a credit
voucher
REQ-PUR-002. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using the available
credit already charged on the smartcard
REQ-PUR-003. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using all the
accepted credit cards (Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
REG-LOGO-001. The user shall be able to logout (by clicking the logout button) from both the select and
purchase pages going back to the browse page (anonymous navigation)
Moreover the following quality risk item has been identified as critical :
QR-P1. The web customer portal might not be able to provide the expected response time (less than 10
sec) for the purchase transactions under a load of up-to 1000 concurrent users
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identified.

TC-SEL-01. Test the combinations of products and durations to define an item to purchase
TC-SEL-02. Test the maximum number of items, which can be added to the shopping cart
TC-PUR-01. Test the purchase of an item
TC-PUR-02. Test the purchase of an item with the credit charged on the smartcard
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and EXCR2
exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
300-135 pdf Answer: C
9.You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a web customer portal of a Pay-TV company that
allows customers (with a smartcard and a set-top box) to purchase digital contents.
In the “select” page the system displays a dialogue where the customer can select the items (digital
contents) he/she is interested in. In this page he/she can add one or more items to a shopping cart. An
item consists of a product and a duration.
There are three types of products: Movie, sport and premium (movie and sport).
There are four possible durations: 1 months, 2 months, winter (from the beginning of January to end of
March) and summer (from the beginning of July to end of September).
All the combinations of products and durations are allowed to define an item. Thus there are twelve
possible items. A maximum of six different items can be added to the shopping cart at a time.
When the customer decides to check out he/she goes to the “purchase” page where he/she can pay the
total amount of the shopping cart in three different ways:
– using a credit voucher
– using a credit already charged on the smartcard
– using a credit card (accepted credit cards are. Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
The customer can logout from both the select and purchase pages. In this case no purchase is made.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy and the following is a subset of the
exit criteria for system testing:
EXCR1- Each critical quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each critical requirement must be covered by at least one test condition You
are following a risk-based testing strategy. The test execution time is very limited.
Assume that all the product risk items require more or less the same level of test effort.
Which of the following answers describes the best execution schedule in this scenario?
A. 1- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel

2- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
3- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
4- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
B. 1- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
2- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
3- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel
C. 1- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
2- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
3- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel
D. 1- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
2- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
3- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel
300-135 vce Answer: D
10.You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine vendors
to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages in their wine
shops. You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG.
EXCR1- Each critical quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each critical requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the critical requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The 300-135 exam application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a valid
number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message Invalid number of bottles if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message Invalid credit card if invalid credit card data
are given by the user
The following is the unique critical quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to get
the number of bottles from the user Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test
conditions have been identified.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles from

the user What is the MINIMUM number of 300-135 dumps test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and EXCR2
exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1
A consultant has been hired to architect a hybrid cloud solution for a client. The consultant decides to build
two clouds: one for development and one for production. Which product can move workloads from the
development cloud to the cloud?
A. vFabiic Suite
B. vCioud Connector
C. vCenter Server
D. vRealize Operations
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An organization is evaluating to a hybrid cloud infrastructure. They already manage an onsite vsphere
environment and want to better understand the benefits of migrating data to vcloud air.
What would be a compelling reason for the client to migrate to a hybrid cloud solution?
A. They will be able to use storage clusters and Storage Distributed Resource Scheduling.
B. They will be able to more easily optimize the provisioning and performance of their virtualized
workloads.
C. They will be able to place their mission-critical virtual machines under Fault Tolerance rotection.
D. vRealize Automation will allow them to leverage vSphere Distributed Switches.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An administrator for a regional service provider has a predominately mobile client base. Which statement
represents an availability challenge that this administrator might face?
A. The clientswant to work on business problems instead of worrying about always been”hands on” with
their virtual workloads.
B. The clients need connectivity and flexibility without being required to host their own internal VPN
services.
C. The clientshave workloads in your data center and want to migrate to hosting providers in different
geographical areas.
D. Theclients need the ability to quickly deploy preconfigured workloads on demand.
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
An administrator is examining a data center to validate that it is operating as efficiently as possible.Which
option represents an Efficiency challenge the administrator might face?
A. Needing to easily roll back changes to workloads during testing and development.
B. Wanting to provide multi-tenant access to cloud resources without compromising security.
C. Needing semi-isolated and autonomous environments for the application development teams.
D. Wanting to align IT costs with corporate models by classifying IT as an operating expense.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A manager wants to know why traditional usage metering tools are less effective in a private cloud
environment thanthey are in physical environments.What statement provides the best response?
A. Traditional monitoring tools won’t work in a cloud environment.
B. Traditional metering tools require agents to be installed, which don’t work in virtual machines.

C. Resource usage is based on the overall demand of all virtual machines instead of per server.
D. This is not true, traditional usage metering tools are still the best choice.
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A company has decided to move to a hybrid cloud environment.They are concerned that this may increase
management complexity by requiring multiple interfaces.Which product provides a single interface for all
virtual machines within a hybrid cloud environment?
A. vCenter Server
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCloud Connector
D. VMware NSX
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A company has a multi-tier application and needs a deployment solution that will take into account CPU
and memory requirements, while ensuring that the security of each workload can be protected using
dynamic firewalls.Which two products will meet the company’s needs? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Replication
B. vRealize Automation
C. vRealize Operations
D. VMware NSX
70-537 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes a Software-Defined Enterprise?
A. An architecture framework designed to fully automate all IT services in all data centers removing the
need for human interaction.
B. An enterprise response to mainstream disorganization of resources in the data center that delivers on
the promise of interconnected infrastructure and software- as a-service.
C. An architecture that uses intelligence automation and common management to provide transparent
governance of infrastructure and software-as a-service.
D. An architecture that uses virtualization to replace all physical components in the data center while
using localized management and compliance to deliver infrastructure and software-as-a-service.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which VMware product will help ensure the most appropriate operating system, amount of storage and
number of vCPUs are assigned when creating a vApp according to a given budget?
A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Business
D. vRealize Automation
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What method you should override to use Android menu system?
A. onCreateOptionsMenu()
B. onCreateMenu()
C. onMenuCreated()
D. onCreateContextMenu()
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
What Activity method you use to retrieve a reference to an Android view by using the id attribute of a
resource XML?
A. findViewByReference(int id);
B. findViewById(int id)
C. retrieveResourceById(int id)
D. findViewById(String id)
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is not an Android component (i.e. a point from which the system can enter your
application)?
A. Service
B. Activity
C. Layout
D. Content Provider
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
During an Activity life-cycle, what is the first callback method invoked by the system?
A. onStop()
B. onStart()
C. onCreate()
D. onRestore()
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which configuration file holds the permission to use the internet?
A. Layout file
B. Property file
C. Java source file
D. Manifest file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
What does the following line of code achieve?
Intent intent = new Intent(FirstActivity.this, SecondActivity.class );

A. Creates an hidden Intent
B. Creates an implicit Intent
C. Create an explicit Intent
D. Create an explicit Intent
70-537 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT a valid usage for Intents?
A. Activate and Activity
B. Activate a Service
C. Activate a Broadcast receiver
D. Activate a SQLite DB Connection.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is not a valid Android resource file name?
A. mylayout.xml
B. myLayout.xml
C. my_layout.xml
D. mylayout1.xml
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of these is not defined as a process state?
A. Non-visible
B. Visible
C. Foreground
D. Background
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the name of the folder that contains the R.java file?
A. src
B. res
C. bin
D. gen
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is a correct statement about an XML layout file?
A. A layout PNG image file
B. A file used to draw the content of an Activity
C. A file that contains all application permission information
D. A file that contains a single activity widget.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: NSE5
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 239

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level? (Choose 1)
A. What is the error code you see?
B. Have you ever had this error before?
C. What were the circumstances that held to this situation?
D. Have you spoken with the systems administrator?
NSE5 exam Answer: C
7.Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)
A. They demonstrate sympathy
B. They use the customer’s name
C. They avoid using verbal attends
D. They listen for, and recognise, emotion words
Answer: B, D.
8.What are the two most important points to remember in order to manage a call
successfully?
(Choose two)
A. Create a problem-solving work-flow
B. Use the same terminology as the customer
C. Clearly document the situation and the steps taken
D. Give the customer something to do
NSE5 dumps Answer: B, C.
9.Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)
A. They acknowledge the customer
B. They know the process for escalating a problem
C. They restate/paraphrase to ensure understanding
D. They understand that evidence and reasoning are critical
Answer: A, C
10.What are two purposes of an on-going (event) survey? (Choose two)
A. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels with products
B. To measure the quality of a single interaction
C. To assess satisfaction levels with all help desk services
D. To trend levels of customer satisfaction between annual (periodic) surveys

NSE5 pdf Answer: B, D
11.What are the three best methods for building rapport among departments within
thesupport organisation? (Choose three)
A. Active Networking
B. Involvement in Project management
C. Participation in company-wide events and initiatives
D. Involvement in cross-functional teams
Answer: A, C, D.
12.A help desk analyst is on the phone with Certkiller .com and does not know the solution
for the problem. What is the best technique for them to use to disengage from the call?
(Choose 1)
A. I have the information. I will get back to you as soon as possible
B. Allow me to check this further. I will call you at 10:00 with an update
C. Let me research this, I will call you back as soon as I have a resolution
D. Permit me to check with some other members of my team, I will get back to you as
soon as I review with this them
NSE5 vce Answer: B
13.What are the two most important purposes of an annual survey? (Choose two)
A. To assess IT technical support
B. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels
C. To identify changes customers feel are valuable
D. To measure changes in products and services from the previous year
Answer: B, C
14.Which two business needs must be considered when allocating priorities?(Chooose two)
A. The impact on the business
B. The customers status
C. The customers location
D. Service level agreement commitments
NSE5 exam Answer: A, D
15.What is the best description of multi-tasking? (Choose 1)
A. Delegating all responsibility along with all tasks
B. Completing one job before starting the next one
C. Starting tasks and handling them to subordinates to complete
D. Being capable of handling a variety of problems at the same time

Answer: D
16.What are two of the best ways to demonstrate confidence when on the telephone with a
customer? (Choose 1)
A. Using a confident tone, tell them you dont have a resolution for their incident yet but
you are finding out by using the knowledgebase
B. Using a confident tone, tell the customer you are new to the desk and are transferring
their call
C. Using a confident tone, ask the customer to call a 2nd line team, and provide their
telephone number
D. Using a confident tone, tell the cutomer that you are unable to help them until
tomorrow
NSE5 dumps Answer: A
17.You think one of your help desk analysts is suffering from stress.
Which two physical signs best indicate the analyst is experiencing stress? (Choose two)
A. They have a new wardrobe of clothes
B. They seems tense and often have white knuckles
C. They bite their fingernails
D. They have a palllid complextion
E. They often seem short of breath
Answer: B, E
18.Why is it important to record and analyse customer complaints? (Choose 1)
A. To gain insight into customer perceptions
B. To identify customers who are never satisfied
C. To prove that other IT groups are meeting customer expectations
D. To demonstrate that customers are not aware of service level agreements
NSE5 pdf Answer: A
19.How can the help desk be of strategic benefit to the organisation?
(Choose one)
A. It increase staff levels
B. It is a useful source of information
C. It ensures rigid adherence to opertional policies
D. It ensures that customers speak only to the help desk personnel
Answer: B
20.You are a help desk analyst and you are having difficulty understanding customer from
another country. What is the best action for you to take? (Choose 1)

A. Ask the customer if there is someone else who speaks your language more fluently
who could assist
B. Ask the customer to email you instead
C. Tell the customer you are sorry but you cannot understand him, and suggest he calls
back another time
D. Tell the customer you will send him a user manual
NSE5 vce Answer: A

21.A vendor may be audited both before and during the execution of a contract. During such a vendor
audit, the focus may be directed at the management and resource management of the company.
Which of the following areas would be EXCLUDED during such an audit?
A. Use and planning of time, manpower and training.
B. Defined quality responsibilities.
C. Company philosophy and organizational charts.
D. Design and process capabilities.
Answer: D
22.In obtaining Total Customer Satisfaction, management should NOT undertake which of the
following activities?
A. Use employee involvement and teamwork.
B. Encourage team competition.
C. Encourage sacrificing for the team.
D. Coordinate efforts of the departments.
NSE5 exam Answer: B
23.Normally, complaint data for both a product or service organization should provide
A. An indication of the organizational areas creating the most problems.
B. The degree or extent of customers dissatisfaction.
C. The appropriate corrective action to take.
D. The total quality costs for the organization.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 85

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1: Will the following SELECT query list all of the tables in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA
database? If not, why?
SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA = ‘INFORMATION_SCHEMA’
ORDER BY TABLE_NAME
A.Yes.
B.No; the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database does not contain information on itself.
C.No; the WHERE clause is incorrect. The correct field name is TABLE_SCHEMATA.
D.No; there is no table in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database called TABLES.
200-155 exam Correct Answers: A
2: Which of the following are some general capabilites of the mysql client program?
A.Create and Drop databases
B.Ping the server
C.Create, Drop, and modify tables and indexes.
D.Shutdown the server.
E.Create users.
F.Display replication server status.
Correct Answers: A C E F
3: Suppose you have a server that has been started with the –myisam-recover option. When does
the server perform the check on the MyISAM tables?
A.Each time the server is started.
B.Each time it encounters an error.
C.Each time it opens the MyISAM table files.
D.Each time the CHECK TABLE command is issued.
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: C
4: Consider the following query:
DELETE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE table_schema = ‘world’
AND table_name = ‘Country’
What would be the result of executing this query?
A.An error would be issued
B.A warning would be issued
C.The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES table, and the table
Country would be dropped from the world database
D.The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA, but the table Country in the
world database would be unaffected.
Correct Answers: A
5: Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A.–shared-memory
B.–memlock
C.–no-networking
D.–skip-networking
200-155 pdf Correct Answers: D
6: What are some advantages of using the SHOW command rather than using the
INFORMATION_SCHEMA?
A.It is available for releases older than MySQL 5.0.
B.It returns results quicker than using the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.
C.Using SHOW can provide more concise information.
D.SHOW is a feature of standard SQL, and INFORMATION_SCHEMA is a MySQL specific
command.
Correct Answers: A C
7: Index analysis and optimization using ANALYZE and OPTIMIZE statements should…
A.generally never be run manually
B.be run once the table reaches 100,000 rows or above
C.be run when more than 5% of the rows are changed by a single statement
D.be run when EXPLAIN SELECT shows that an inordinate amount of rows is expected to be
read during query execution
E.be run when you suspect that a table is heavily fragmented
200-155 vce Correct Answers: D E
8: Suppose you have a column in which most records are going to be between 30 and 32
characters. Which of the following column types would be most efficient?
A.VARCHAR
B.CHAR
C.TEXT
D.Either VARCHAR or CHAR
Correct Answers: B
9: Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A.Connector/J
B.Connector/ODBC
C.C API
D.Connector/NET
E.Connector/MJX
200-155 exam Correct Answers: C
10: Which of the following are some benefits of using MySQL built binaries over binaries built by
yourself?
A.They are highly optimized.
B.They are cross-platform.

C.Many are built using commercial compilers that produce a better quality build than with freely
available compilers.
D.They will work with tools such as MySQL Administrator and MySQL Query Browser.
E.They may include libraries not available in the standard operating system library.
Correct Answers: A C E
11: Assume you compile MySQL from source and invoke configure with the following options.
–with-charset=latin1 –with-extra-charsets=utf8,ucs2
Compared to a standard binary installation that contains many more character sets, which of the
following statements is/are true?
A.The compiled version will use less disk space, because only a few character sets will be
installed on disk.
B.The compiled version will use less memory, because only a few character sets will be loaded by
the server.
C.The compiled version will use less file handles, because only a few files need to be opened
when the server is started.
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: A B
12: Which of the following are true for how BTREE and HASH index types should be used for
MEMORY tables?
A.HASH index types are only for use with equality comparisions such as those using the = and
<=> operators.
B.BTREE index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality
operators such as = and <=>
C.BTREE index types are only for use with equality comparisons such as those using the = and
<=> operators.
D.HASH index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality
operators such as = and <=>
Correct Answers: A B
13: Which of the following are some general properties of the mysqlimport client program?
A.It loads data files into tables.
B.It can load files only on the server host.
C.It provides a command-line interface to the LOAD DATA INFILE.
D.It can load files both on the client and server host.
E.It bypasses the server and writes directly to the corresponding data files.
200-155 pdf Correct Answers: A C D
14: Which of the following statements are true?
A.InnoDB supports Foreign Keys.
B.MyISAM supports Foreign Keys.
C.InnoDB supports cascaded DELETE statements.
D.MyISAM supports cascaded DELETE statements.
E.InnoDB supports cascaded UPDATE statements.

F.MyISAM supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
Correct Answers: A C E
15: In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A.Format files for all the tables
B.Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C.InnoDB tablespace files
D.General server logs
E.MySQL upgrade script files
200-155 vce Correct Answers: A B C D
16: Which of the following statements is true for mysqldump?
A.It can dump data only on remote servers.
B.It can dump data only on the local server.
C.It can dump data on both local and remote servers.
Correct Answers: C
17: Which of the following best describes the scope of explicitly and implicitly set locks?
A.Explicitly set locks may span several commands.
B.Implicitly set locks may span several commands.
C.Implicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
D.Explicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
200-155 exam Correct Answers: A B C
18: MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is
handled by it’s own thread.
A.True
B.False
Correct Answers: A
19: Which of the following are true regarding the table cache?
A.It is used to cache row data in open tables
B.It holds file descriptors for open tables
C.The size of the table cache may be set per-session
D.Each connection has its own table cache. They are of equal size, set globally.
E.There is one table cache, shared among all sessions.
F.Increasing the size of the variable table_cache allows mysqld to keep more tables open
simultaneously
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: B E F

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Updated: Jul 25, 2017
Q&As: 47

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70-473

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-473 PDF Exam Q&As:

QUESTION: 1 Which of the following management products ARE updated as part of Managing a
stage boundary?
1. Business Case
2. Benefits Review Plan
3. Configuration Item Records
4. Project Brief
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
70-473 pdf Answer: A


QUESTION: 2
Which of the following activities could trigger the production of an exception plan?
A. Review Stage status
B. Giving ad hoc direction
C. Escalating a project issue
D. Report stage end
Answer: B


QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued
Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project.
B. The justification for the project should remain vabd.
C. The justification for the project may change.
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped.
70-473 vce Answer: B


QUESTION: 4
Which of the following activities is NOT an action of preparing for planned
closure?
A. Update the project plan with actual
B. Update the Project Management Team
C. Request a product status account
D. Confirm project has delivered what is defined in Project Product Description
Answer: B


QUESTION: 5
Which principle is supported by the activity Evaluate the Project?
A. Continued Business Justification
B. Defined roles and responsibilities
C. Learn from experience
D. Manage by stages
70-473 dumps Answer: C


QUESTION: 6
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the photos could be used for other
promotional material for the company?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Lessons Log
C. Exception Report
D. End Project Report
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the staff photo sessions were
disruptive to the Engineering Department as they had been scheduled during
peak work times without consultation with the Engineering Manager?
A. Follow-on action recommendations
B. Lessons Report
C. Project closure notification
D. Risk Register
70-473 exam Answer: B


QUESTION: 8
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that if anybody has any remaining resource costs to be charged to the project, they
should ensure this is done by 10 November?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Follow-on action recommendations
D. Project closure notification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the project has been closed
prematurely and has not achieved the objectives defined in the Project Initiation
Documentation (PID)?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Exception Report
D. Project closure notification
70-473 pdf Answer: B


QUESTION: 10
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that without the calendar the company is going to experience
difficulties recovering its decline in orders, and alternative solutions are
required if the company is going to recover its position?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Exception Report
C. End Project Report
D. Risk Register

Answer: C


QUESTION: 11
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now.
Which product should register that the risk of a competitor producing a calendar
at the same time was identified at the beginning of the project but the assessment
of this risk appears to have been poor?
A. Issue Register
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Lessons Report
D. Risk Register
70-473 dumps Answer: C

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