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Exam Code: 70-761
Exam Name: Querying Data with Transact-SQL
Q&As: 82

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QUESTION 40
If loop exists and STP is not enabled, the switch will not operate normally
A. True
B. False
70-761 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.

70-761 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements is not the advantage of STP?
A. STP can manage the redundant links. When the working link is down, network connectivity can be
restored.
B. STP can prevent loops
C. STP can prevent broadcast storm
D. STP can save network bandwidth
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following standards defines STP?
A. 802.1J
B. 802.1X
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1P
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
STP elects ( )
A. One bridge as the Root Bridge and another one as the Backup Root Bridge
B. One bridge as the Root Bridge
C. Two bridges as the Root Bridge
D. One Designated Bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
STP distributes configuration message by sending BPDU packet to each other.
A. True
B. False
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In STP, BPDU packet is carried by ( ).
A. IP packet
B. TCP packet
C. Ethernet frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
In a switching network that has been enabled with STP protocol, the priorities of all the switches are the
same. The MAC address of switch1 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, MAC address of switch2 is 00- e0-fc-00-00-10,
MAC address of switch3 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and MAC address of switch4 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which of
the switches will be elected as the Root Bridge?
A. Switch1

B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
70-761 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A switching network has been enabled with STP protocol. To provide fast access speed to the file server
for most of the users, the switch that is directly connected with file server is configured as the root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU will
time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails, Configuration
BPDU cannot be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following statements about STP is not true?
A. STP can manage redundant links.
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
According to OSI reference model, Layer 2 LAN switch operates at ( ).
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. IP layer
D. Application layer
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
According to the STP protocol, a certain field in the BPDU identifies the root switch. That is, if the BPDU
sent by a switch contains this field, this switch is considered as the root switch. What is this field?
A. Root Identifier
B. Root Path Cost
C. Bridge Identifier
D. Port Identifier
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which are the two parts in the port identifier of the uplink interface on a non-root switch?
A. 1-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
B. 1-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
C. 2-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
D. 2-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
In the network diagram, which switch will be selected as the root switch?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which statements about the PVID on the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. When receiving a packet without the VLAN tag, the interface adds the VLAN tag to the packet and sets
the VID in the tag to the default VLAN ID.
B. When receiving a packet with a VLAN tag, the interface compares the VLAN ID in the tag with the
default VLAN ID. If they are the same, the interface forwards the packets; otherwise, the interface
discards the packets.
C. When the interface sends a packet with a VLAN tag that contains the default VLAN ID, the system
removes the VLAN tag of the packet, and then forwards the packet.
D. None of the above.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 57
Which statement about the hybrid interface is true?
A. A hybrid interface can only be connected to network device.
B. A hybrid interface can only be connected to host.
C. A hybrid interface can be connected to host or network device.
D. A hybrid interface cannot be configured with VLAN ID.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement about MUX VLAN is false?
A. Principal VLAN
B. Subordinate VLAN
C. Subordinate group VLAN
D. Guest VLAN
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three Fibre Channel topologies are used in SAN implementations? (choose three.)
A. arbitrated loop
B. physical
C. switched fabric
D. point-to-point
E. logical
70-774 exam Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a Host Bus Adaptor (HBA)?
A. A compact optical device that connects to switches and transmits and receives data.
B. A device that connects multiple computers together to form a network segment.
C. A non-volatile data storage device.
D. A Fibre Channel interface that connects a computer to a storage network.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
What are two benefits of using snapshots as part of an in-system replication solution? (Choose
two.)
A. Snapshots provide storage-efficient copies of the data.
B. Snapshots create a physical clone of the data.
C. Volumes are restored faster from snapshot copies.
D. Snapshots provide point-in-time data copies.
70-774 dumps Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 4
What are two characteristics of array-based asynchronous remote replication? (Choose two.)
A. It supports server performance under load.
B. It is installed and run on a server.
C. It can be implemented over a WAN.
D. It does not ensure data consistency.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 5
When using IP to transfer data over a network, which protocol re-combines IP packets into the
correct order to re-create the message sent from the source?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. UDP
D. TCP
70-774 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
An online bank wants to improve their environmental credentials by reducing power consumption
and heat output in their data center, but without affecting service levels. Which three strategies
would they use to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Add more data storage.
B. Consolidate existing storage.
C. Reduce data center hotspots.
D. Implement virtualization strategies.
E. Migrate customer data to off-line storage.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 7
Which type of tiered data requires a storage infrastructure that provides reasonable performance
and availability and must recover within 8 hours of a failure?
A. mission-critical data
B. business-critical data
C. nearline data
D. offline data
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which two features help reduce power consumption on a storage system? (Choose two.)
A. on-demand cache partitioning
B. ability to turn off HDDs when not accessed
C. adaptive dual power battery backup
D. dynamic fan speed adjustment
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 9
What is an advantage of cache partitioning?
A. dynamic reallocation of cache resource by performance criteria
B. optimized storage system performance
C. improved security against unauthorized administrative access
D. automated data copy to a secondary partition
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
A large healthcare company wants to implement an object store in their application. Which three
are considered to be an object? (Choose three.)
A. a mirror copy of a data volume
B. an MRI Image file
C. a lab report in pdf format
D. a file services structure of active data
E. an ultrasound video file
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 11
Which two elements are critical to configuring high availability access to storage over a SAN?
(Choose two.)
A. data path management
B. automated path failover
C. diagnosis of performance bottlenecks
D. prioritizing of an application’s server port access
70-774 dumps Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 12
What are the two ways a storage system implements virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. in-band
B. cross-band
C. cascaded
D. out-of-band
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 13
What are two advantages of implementing an Ethernet network in an office environment? (Choose
two.)
A. resource sharing
B. VSAN capabilities
C. centralized management
D. MAC address zoning
70-774 pdf Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
What are two benefits of using performance reporting software? (Choose two).
A. It provides disk subsystem utilization data.
B. It moves elements between storage partitions.
C. It provides workload data for volumes and ports.
D. It migrates data away from storage hot-spots.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which customer type will benefit from a content management platform solution?
A. Customers with a large number of departmental offices in multiple locations.
B. Customers with large numbers of file servers or NAS systems considering an archiving or a
tiering strategy.
C. Customers wanting to improve application availability by reducing downtime caused by
backups.
D. Customers wanting to deploy a structured database for their customer data.
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
Which two statements are correct about array-based data replication? (Choose two.)
A. Write operations to the storage are performed faster.
B. It can run independent of host OS, file system and database.
C. There is only a single current copy of each volume.
D. Data copy volumes can be used offline for development and testing.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
An architect firm wants to simplify how they store and share their designs. The files are high
resolution and will be viewed by many people in the company at their workstations. Each architect
has their own operating system preferences, but the files should be available to all. Which platform
would meet this requirement?
A. a storage system with an iSCSI option installed
B. a storage system with a NAS front-end
C. a storage system with SAS drives and a DAS front-end
D. a storage system that implements a Fibre Channel SAN
70-774 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
A customer has a large number of high performance database servers with DAS. They are
concerned about isolated data and would also like to re-assign unused storage to avoid additional
expenditure and to minimize unexpected loss of access to data. Which solution satisfies the
requirements?
A. Attach all servers directly to their storage.
B. Attach all servers and storage to redundant SAN fabrics.
C. Implement a DAS RAID 5 solution for the database servers.
D. Add a NAS option to the storage and deliver data using file services.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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7.You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine vendors to
order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages in their wine
shops. You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG. EXCR1- Each critical quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition EXCR2- Each critical requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the critical requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and no

more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a valid
number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message Invalid number of bottles if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The 300-135 exam application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message Invalid credit card if invalid credit card data
are given by the user
QUSTION NO: 11
The following is the unique critical quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to get
the number of bottles from the user
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles from
the user Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the requirements
and the single risk item identified in that scenario. Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the REQSEL-4 requirement?
A. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
B. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
C. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the “Invalid number of bottles”
message is displayed
D. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles
300-135 dumps Answer: C
8.The following are the requirements identified as critical :
REQ-SEL-001. The user shall be able to combine all the three products with all the four durations to
define an item to purchase
REQ-SEL-002. The user shall be able to add a maximum of six different items to the shopping cart
REQ-PUR-001. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using a credit
voucher
REQ-PUR-002. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using the available
credit already charged on the smartcard
REQ-PUR-003. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using all the
accepted credit cards (Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
REG-LOGO-001. The user shall be able to logout (by clicking the logout button) from both the select and
purchase pages going back to the browse page (anonymous navigation)
Moreover the following quality risk item has been identified as critical :
QR-P1. The web customer portal might not be able to provide the expected response time (less than 10
sec) for the purchase transactions under a load of up-to 1000 concurrent users
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identified.

TC-SEL-01. Test the combinations of products and durations to define an item to purchase
TC-SEL-02. Test the maximum number of items, which can be added to the shopping cart
TC-PUR-01. Test the purchase of an item
TC-PUR-02. Test the purchase of an item with the credit charged on the smartcard
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and EXCR2
exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
300-135 pdf Answer: C
9.You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a web customer portal of a Pay-TV company that
allows customers (with a smartcard and a set-top box) to purchase digital contents.
In the “select” page the system displays a dialogue where the customer can select the items (digital
contents) he/she is interested in. In this page he/she can add one or more items to a shopping cart. An
item consists of a product and a duration.
There are three types of products: Movie, sport and premium (movie and sport).
There are four possible durations: 1 months, 2 months, winter (from the beginning of January to end of
March) and summer (from the beginning of July to end of September).
All the combinations of products and durations are allowed to define an item. Thus there are twelve
possible items. A maximum of six different items can be added to the shopping cart at a time.
When the customer decides to check out he/she goes to the “purchase” page where he/she can pay the
total amount of the shopping cart in three different ways:
– using a credit voucher
– using a credit already charged on the smartcard
– using a credit card (accepted credit cards are. Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
The customer can logout from both the select and purchase pages. In this case no purchase is made.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy and the following is a subset of the
exit criteria for system testing:
EXCR1- Each critical quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each critical requirement must be covered by at least one test condition You
are following a risk-based testing strategy. The test execution time is very limited.
Assume that all the product risk items require more or less the same level of test effort.
Which of the following answers describes the best execution schedule in this scenario?
A. 1- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel

2- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
3- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
4- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
B. 1- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
2- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
3- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel
C. 1- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
2- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
3- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel
D. 1- Test the correct pre-activation of the Smart Card
2- Test the correct activation of the Smart Card
3- Test the correct charge of the Smart Card with the required contents
4- Test the acceptance of transactions coming from the IVR channel
300-135 vce Answer: D
10.You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine vendors
to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages in their wine
shops. You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG.
EXCR1- Each critical quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each critical requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the critical requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The 300-135 exam application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a valid
number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message Invalid number of bottles if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message Invalid credit card if invalid credit card data
are given by the user
The following is the unique critical quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to get
the number of bottles from the user Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test
conditions have been identified.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles from

the user What is the MINIMUM number of 300-135 dumps test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and EXCR2
exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1
A consultant has been hired to architect a hybrid cloud solution for a client. The consultant decides to build
two clouds: one for development and one for production. Which product can move workloads from the
development cloud to the cloud?
A. vFabiic Suite
B. vCioud Connector
C. vCenter Server
D. vRealize Operations
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An organization is evaluating to a hybrid cloud infrastructure. They already manage an onsite vsphere
environment and want to better understand the benefits of migrating data to vcloud air.
What would be a compelling reason for the client to migrate to a hybrid cloud solution?
A. They will be able to use storage clusters and Storage Distributed Resource Scheduling.
B. They will be able to more easily optimize the provisioning and performance of their virtualized
workloads.
C. They will be able to place their mission-critical virtual machines under Fault Tolerance rotection.
D. vRealize Automation will allow them to leverage vSphere Distributed Switches.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An administrator for a regional service provider has a predominately mobile client base. Which statement
represents an availability challenge that this administrator might face?
A. The clientswant to work on business problems instead of worrying about always been”hands on” with
their virtual workloads.
B. The clients need connectivity and flexibility without being required to host their own internal VPN
services.
C. The clientshave workloads in your data center and want to migrate to hosting providers in different
geographical areas.
D. Theclients need the ability to quickly deploy preconfigured workloads on demand.
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
An administrator is examining a data center to validate that it is operating as efficiently as possible.Which
option represents an Efficiency challenge the administrator might face?
A. Needing to easily roll back changes to workloads during testing and development.
B. Wanting to provide multi-tenant access to cloud resources without compromising security.
C. Needing semi-isolated and autonomous environments for the application development teams.
D. Wanting to align IT costs with corporate models by classifying IT as an operating expense.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A manager wants to know why traditional usage metering tools are less effective in a private cloud
environment thanthey are in physical environments.What statement provides the best response?
A. Traditional monitoring tools won’t work in a cloud environment.
B. Traditional metering tools require agents to be installed, which don’t work in virtual machines.

C. Resource usage is based on the overall demand of all virtual machines instead of per server.
D. This is not true, traditional usage metering tools are still the best choice.
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A company has decided to move to a hybrid cloud environment.They are concerned that this may increase
management complexity by requiring multiple interfaces.Which product provides a single interface for all
virtual machines within a hybrid cloud environment?
A. vCenter Server
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCloud Connector
D. VMware NSX
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A company has a multi-tier application and needs a deployment solution that will take into account CPU
and memory requirements, while ensuring that the security of each workload can be protected using
dynamic firewalls.Which two products will meet the company’s needs? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Replication
B. vRealize Automation
C. vRealize Operations
D. VMware NSX
70-537 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes a Software-Defined Enterprise?
A. An architecture framework designed to fully automate all IT services in all data centers removing the
need for human interaction.
B. An enterprise response to mainstream disorganization of resources in the data center that delivers on
the promise of interconnected infrastructure and software- as a-service.
C. An architecture that uses intelligence automation and common management to provide transparent
governance of infrastructure and software-as a-service.
D. An architecture that uses virtualization to replace all physical components in the data center while
using localized management and compliance to deliver infrastructure and software-as-a-service.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which VMware product will help ensure the most appropriate operating system, amount of storage and
number of vCPUs are assigned when creating a vApp according to a given budget?
A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Business
D. vRealize Automation
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What method you should override to use Android menu system?
A. onCreateOptionsMenu()
B. onCreateMenu()
C. onMenuCreated()
D. onCreateContextMenu()
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
What Activity method you use to retrieve a reference to an Android view by using the id attribute of a
resource XML?
A. findViewByReference(int id);
B. findViewById(int id)
C. retrieveResourceById(int id)
D. findViewById(String id)
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is not an Android component (i.e. a point from which the system can enter your
application)?
A. Service
B. Activity
C. Layout
D. Content Provider
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
During an Activity life-cycle, what is the first callback method invoked by the system?
A. onStop()
B. onStart()
C. onCreate()
D. onRestore()
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which configuration file holds the permission to use the internet?
A. Layout file
B. Property file
C. Java source file
D. Manifest file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
What does the following line of code achieve?
Intent intent = new Intent(FirstActivity.this, SecondActivity.class );

A. Creates an hidden Intent
B. Creates an implicit Intent
C. Create an explicit Intent
D. Create an explicit Intent
70-537 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT a valid usage for Intents?
A. Activate and Activity
B. Activate a Service
C. Activate a Broadcast receiver
D. Activate a SQLite DB Connection.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is not a valid Android resource file name?
A. mylayout.xml
B. myLayout.xml
C. my_layout.xml
D. mylayout1.xml
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of these is not defined as a process state?
A. Non-visible
B. Visible
C. Foreground
D. Background
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the name of the folder that contains the R.java file?
A. src
B. res
C. bin
D. gen
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is a correct statement about an XML layout file?
A. A layout PNG image file
B. A file used to draw the content of an Activity
C. A file that contains all application permission information
D. A file that contains a single activity widget.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: NSE5
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 239

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6.Which question should you ask to best assess Certkiller .com’s experience and knowledge
level? (Choose 1)
A. What is the error code you see?
B. Have you ever had this error before?
C. What were the circumstances that held to this situation?
D. Have you spoken with the systems administrator?
NSE5 exam Answer: C
7.Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)
A. They demonstrate sympathy
B. They use the customer’s name
C. They avoid using verbal attends
D. They listen for, and recognise, emotion words
Answer: B, D.
8.What are the two most important points to remember in order to manage a call
successfully?
(Choose two)
A. Create a problem-solving work-flow
B. Use the same terminology as the customer
C. Clearly document the situation and the steps taken
D. Give the customer something to do
NSE5 dumps Answer: B, C.
9.Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)
A. They acknowledge the customer
B. They know the process for escalating a problem
C. They restate/paraphrase to ensure understanding
D. They understand that evidence and reasoning are critical
Answer: A, C
10.What are two purposes of an on-going (event) survey? (Choose two)
A. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels with products
B. To measure the quality of a single interaction
C. To assess satisfaction levels with all help desk services
D. To trend levels of customer satisfaction between annual (periodic) surveys

NSE5 pdf Answer: B, D
11.What are the three best methods for building rapport among departments within
thesupport organisation? (Choose three)
A. Active Networking
B. Involvement in Project management
C. Participation in company-wide events and initiatives
D. Involvement in cross-functional teams
Answer: A, C, D.
12.A help desk analyst is on the phone with Certkiller .com and does not know the solution
for the problem. What is the best technique for them to use to disengage from the call?
(Choose 1)
A. I have the information. I will get back to you as soon as possible
B. Allow me to check this further. I will call you at 10:00 with an update
C. Let me research this, I will call you back as soon as I have a resolution
D. Permit me to check with some other members of my team, I will get back to you as
soon as I review with this them
NSE5 vce Answer: B
13.What are the two most important purposes of an annual survey? (Choose two)
A. To assess IT technical support
B. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels
C. To identify changes customers feel are valuable
D. To measure changes in products and services from the previous year
Answer: B, C
14.Which two business needs must be considered when allocating priorities?(Chooose two)
A. The impact on the business
B. The customers status
C. The customers location
D. Service level agreement commitments
NSE5 exam Answer: A, D
15.What is the best description of multi-tasking? (Choose 1)
A. Delegating all responsibility along with all tasks
B. Completing one job before starting the next one
C. Starting tasks and handling them to subordinates to complete
D. Being capable of handling a variety of problems at the same time

Answer: D
16.What are two of the best ways to demonstrate confidence when on the telephone with a
customer? (Choose 1)
A. Using a confident tone, tell them you dont have a resolution for their incident yet but
you are finding out by using the knowledgebase
B. Using a confident tone, tell the customer you are new to the desk and are transferring
their call
C. Using a confident tone, ask the customer to call a 2nd line team, and provide their
telephone number
D. Using a confident tone, tell the cutomer that you are unable to help them until
tomorrow
NSE5 dumps Answer: A
17.You think one of your help desk analysts is suffering from stress.
Which two physical signs best indicate the analyst is experiencing stress? (Choose two)
A. They have a new wardrobe of clothes
B. They seems tense and often have white knuckles
C. They bite their fingernails
D. They have a palllid complextion
E. They often seem short of breath
Answer: B, E
18.Why is it important to record and analyse customer complaints? (Choose 1)
A. To gain insight into customer perceptions
B. To identify customers who are never satisfied
C. To prove that other IT groups are meeting customer expectations
D. To demonstrate that customers are not aware of service level agreements
NSE5 pdf Answer: A
19.How can the help desk be of strategic benefit to the organisation?
(Choose one)
A. It increase staff levels
B. It is a useful source of information
C. It ensures rigid adherence to opertional policies
D. It ensures that customers speak only to the help desk personnel
Answer: B
20.You are a help desk analyst and you are having difficulty understanding customer from
another country. What is the best action for you to take? (Choose 1)

A. Ask the customer if there is someone else who speaks your language more fluently
who could assist
B. Ask the customer to email you instead
C. Tell the customer you are sorry but you cannot understand him, and suggest he calls
back another time
D. Tell the customer you will send him a user manual
NSE5 vce Answer: A

21.A vendor may be audited both before and during the execution of a contract. During such a vendor
audit, the focus may be directed at the management and resource management of the company.
Which of the following areas would be EXCLUDED during such an audit?
A. Use and planning of time, manpower and training.
B. Defined quality responsibilities.
C. Company philosophy and organizational charts.
D. Design and process capabilities.
Answer: D
22.In obtaining Total Customer Satisfaction, management should NOT undertake which of the
following activities?
A. Use employee involvement and teamwork.
B. Encourage team competition.
C. Encourage sacrificing for the team.
D. Coordinate efforts of the departments.
NSE5 exam Answer: B
23.Normally, complaint data for both a product or service organization should provide
A. An indication of the organizational areas creating the most problems.
B. The degree or extent of customers dissatisfaction.
C. The appropriate corrective action to take.
D. The total quality costs for the organization.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 85

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1: Will the following SELECT query list all of the tables in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA
database? If not, why?
SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA = ‘INFORMATION_SCHEMA’
ORDER BY TABLE_NAME
A.Yes.
B.No; the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database does not contain information on itself.
C.No; the WHERE clause is incorrect. The correct field name is TABLE_SCHEMATA.
D.No; there is no table in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database called TABLES.
200-155 exam Correct Answers: A
2: Which of the following are some general capabilites of the mysql client program?
A.Create and Drop databases
B.Ping the server
C.Create, Drop, and modify tables and indexes.
D.Shutdown the server.
E.Create users.
F.Display replication server status.
Correct Answers: A C E F
3: Suppose you have a server that has been started with the –myisam-recover option. When does
the server perform the check on the MyISAM tables?
A.Each time the server is started.
B.Each time it encounters an error.
C.Each time it opens the MyISAM table files.
D.Each time the CHECK TABLE command is issued.
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: C
4: Consider the following query:
DELETE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE table_schema = ‘world’
AND table_name = ‘Country’
What would be the result of executing this query?
A.An error would be issued
B.A warning would be issued
C.The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES table, and the table
Country would be dropped from the world database
D.The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA, but the table Country in the
world database would be unaffected.
Correct Answers: A
5: Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A.–shared-memory
B.–memlock
C.–no-networking
D.–skip-networking
200-155 pdf Correct Answers: D
6: What are some advantages of using the SHOW command rather than using the
INFORMATION_SCHEMA?
A.It is available for releases older than MySQL 5.0.
B.It returns results quicker than using the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.
C.Using SHOW can provide more concise information.
D.SHOW is a feature of standard SQL, and INFORMATION_SCHEMA is a MySQL specific
command.
Correct Answers: A C
7: Index analysis and optimization using ANALYZE and OPTIMIZE statements should…
A.generally never be run manually
B.be run once the table reaches 100,000 rows or above
C.be run when more than 5% of the rows are changed by a single statement
D.be run when EXPLAIN SELECT shows that an inordinate amount of rows is expected to be
read during query execution
E.be run when you suspect that a table is heavily fragmented
200-155 vce Correct Answers: D E
8: Suppose you have a column in which most records are going to be between 30 and 32
characters. Which of the following column types would be most efficient?
A.VARCHAR
B.CHAR
C.TEXT
D.Either VARCHAR or CHAR
Correct Answers: B
9: Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A.Connector/J
B.Connector/ODBC
C.C API
D.Connector/NET
E.Connector/MJX
200-155 exam Correct Answers: C
10: Which of the following are some benefits of using MySQL built binaries over binaries built by
yourself?
A.They are highly optimized.
B.They are cross-platform.

C.Many are built using commercial compilers that produce a better quality build than with freely
available compilers.
D.They will work with tools such as MySQL Administrator and MySQL Query Browser.
E.They may include libraries not available in the standard operating system library.
Correct Answers: A C E
11: Assume you compile MySQL from source and invoke configure with the following options.
–with-charset=latin1 –with-extra-charsets=utf8,ucs2
Compared to a standard binary installation that contains many more character sets, which of the
following statements is/are true?
A.The compiled version will use less disk space, because only a few character sets will be
installed on disk.
B.The compiled version will use less memory, because only a few character sets will be loaded by
the server.
C.The compiled version will use less file handles, because only a few files need to be opened
when the server is started.
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: A B
12: Which of the following are true for how BTREE and HASH index types should be used for
MEMORY tables?
A.HASH index types are only for use with equality comparisions such as those using the = and
<=> operators.
B.BTREE index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality
operators such as = and <=>
C.BTREE index types are only for use with equality comparisons such as those using the = and
<=> operators.
D.HASH index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality
operators such as = and <=>
Correct Answers: A B
13: Which of the following are some general properties of the mysqlimport client program?
A.It loads data files into tables.
B.It can load files only on the server host.
C.It provides a command-line interface to the LOAD DATA INFILE.
D.It can load files both on the client and server host.
E.It bypasses the server and writes directly to the corresponding data files.
200-155 pdf Correct Answers: A C D
14: Which of the following statements are true?
A.InnoDB supports Foreign Keys.
B.MyISAM supports Foreign Keys.
C.InnoDB supports cascaded DELETE statements.
D.MyISAM supports cascaded DELETE statements.
E.InnoDB supports cascaded UPDATE statements.

F.MyISAM supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
Correct Answers: A C E
15: In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A.Format files for all the tables
B.Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C.InnoDB tablespace files
D.General server logs
E.MySQL upgrade script files
200-155 vce Correct Answers: A B C D
16: Which of the following statements is true for mysqldump?
A.It can dump data only on remote servers.
B.It can dump data only on the local server.
C.It can dump data on both local and remote servers.
Correct Answers: C
17: Which of the following best describes the scope of explicitly and implicitly set locks?
A.Explicitly set locks may span several commands.
B.Implicitly set locks may span several commands.
C.Implicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
D.Explicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
200-155 exam Correct Answers: A B C
18: MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is
handled by it’s own thread.
A.True
B.False
Correct Answers: A
19: Which of the following are true regarding the table cache?
A.It is used to cache row data in open tables
B.It holds file descriptors for open tables
C.The size of the table cache may be set per-session
D.Each connection has its own table cache. They are of equal size, set globally.
E.There is one table cache, shared among all sessions.
F.Increasing the size of the variable table_cache allows mysqld to keep more tables open
simultaneously
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: B E F

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Updated: Jul 25, 2017
Q&As: 47

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QUESTION: 1 Which of the following management products ARE updated as part of Managing a
stage boundary?
1. Business Case
2. Benefits Review Plan
3. Configuration Item Records
4. Project Brief
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
70-473 pdf Answer: A


QUESTION: 2
Which of the following activities could trigger the production of an exception plan?
A. Review Stage status
B. Giving ad hoc direction
C. Escalating a project issue
D. Report stage end
Answer: B


QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued
Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project.
B. The justification for the project should remain vabd.
C. The justification for the project may change.
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped.
70-473 vce Answer: B


QUESTION: 4
Which of the following activities is NOT an action of preparing for planned
closure?
A. Update the project plan with actual
B. Update the Project Management Team
C. Request a product status account
D. Confirm project has delivered what is defined in Project Product Description
Answer: B


QUESTION: 5
Which principle is supported by the activity Evaluate the Project?
A. Continued Business Justification
B. Defined roles and responsibilities
C. Learn from experience
D. Manage by stages
70-473 dumps Answer: C


QUESTION: 6
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the photos could be used for other
promotional material for the company?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Lessons Log
C. Exception Report
D. End Project Report
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the staff photo sessions were
disruptive to the Engineering Department as they had been scheduled during
peak work times without consultation with the Engineering Manager?
A. Follow-on action recommendations
B. Lessons Report
C. Project closure notification
D. Risk Register
70-473 exam Answer: B


QUESTION: 8
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that if anybody has any remaining resource costs to be charged to the project, they
should ensure this is done by 10 November?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Follow-on action recommendations
D. Project closure notification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the project has been closed
prematurely and has not achieved the objectives defined in the Project Initiation
Documentation (PID)?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Exception Report
D. Project closure notification
70-473 pdf Answer: B


QUESTION: 10
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that without the calendar the company is going to experience
difficulties recovering its decline in orders, and alternative solutions are
required if the company is going to recover its position?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Exception Report
C. End Project Report
D. Risk Register

Answer: C


QUESTION: 11
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now.
Which product should register that the risk of a competitor producing a calendar
at the same time was identified at the beginning of the project but the assessment
of this risk appears to have been poor?
A. Issue Register
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Lessons Report
D. Risk Register
70-473 dumps Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Updated: Jul 24, 2017
Q&As: 269

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300-208

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-208 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
Which three pieces of information can be found in an authentication detail report? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP vendor ID
B. user agent string
C. the authorization rule matched by the endpoint
D. the EAP method the endpoint is using
E. the RADIUS username being used
F. failed posture requirement
300-208 exam Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 2
Which RADIUS attribute is used primarily to differentiate an IEEE 802.1x request from a Cisco MAB
request?
A. RADIUS Attribute (5) NAS-Port
B. RADIUS Attribute (6) Service-Type
C. RADIUS Attribute (7) Framed-Protocol
D. RADIUS Attribute (61) NAS-Port-Type
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What user rights does an account need to join ISE to a Microsoft Active Directory domain?
A. Create and Delete Computer 0bjects
B. Domain Admin
C. Join and Leave Domain
D. Create and Delete User 0bjects
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
You enabled the guest session limit feature on the Cisco ISE. However, end users report that the same
guest can log in from multiple devices simultaneously.
Which configuration is missing on the network access device?
A. RADIUS authentication
B. RADIUS accounting
C. DHCP required
D. AAA override
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
After an endpoint has completed authentication with MAB, a security violation is triggered because a
different MAC address was detected.
Which host mode must be active on the port?
A. single-hostmode
B. multidomain authentication host mode
C. multiauthentication host mode
D. multihost mode
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. multidomain authentication host mode
B. multihost mode
C. multi-MAC host mode
D. single-host mode
E. dual-host mode
F. multi-auth hostmode
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 7
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the
web authenticationportal?(Choosetwo.)
A. ISE
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
300-208 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which type of remediation does Windows Server Update Services provide?
A. automatic remediation
B. administrator-initiated remediation
C. redirect remediation
D. central Web auth remediation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What type of Identity group is the Blacklist Identity group?
A. endpoint
B. user
C. blackhole
D. quarantine
E. denied systems
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208

If a user with privilege 15 is matching this command set on Cisco ISE 2.0, which three commands can the
user execute? (Choose three.)
A. configure terminal
B. show run
C. show clock
D. ping 10.10.100.1
E. exit
F. show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 11
Which remediation type ensures that Automatic Updates configuration is turned on Windows clients per
security policy to remediate Windows clients for posture compliance?
A. AS Remediation
B. File Remediation
C. Launch Program Remediation
D. Windows Update Remediation
E. WindowsServerUpdateServicesRemediation
300-208 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.)
A. The port is error disabled.
B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port.
C. The port generates a port resistance error.
D. The port attempts to repair the violation.
E. The port is placed in quarantine state.
F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13
Your guest-access wireless network is experiencing degraded performance and excessive latency due to
user saturation. Which type of rate limiting can you implement on your network to correct the problem?
A. per-device
B. per-policy
C. per-access point
D. per-controller
E. per-application
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which ISE feature is used to facilitate a BY0D deployment?
A. self-service personal device registration and onboarding
B. Guest Service Sponsor Portal
C. Local Web Auth
D. Guest Identity Source Sequence
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which two types of client provisioning resources are used for BY0D implementations? (Choose two.)
A. user agent
B. Cisco NAC agent
C. nativesupplicantprofiles
D. device sensor
E. software provisioning wizards
300-208 vce Correct Answer: CE

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[2017-July-17] 100% Success Rate ICND1 100-105 PDF Cisco Interconnecting Is What You Need To Take on Slideboom

The Cisco Certified Entry level Network Technician — Routing and Switching (CCENT) certification is, as the name implies, designed for entry-level IT networking professionals. It is the first step toward earning several Associate-level certifications from Cisco, the most popular of which is the Cisco http://www.kill4exam.com/100-105.html pdf Cisco Certified Network Associate – Routing and Switching (CCNA R&S). The CCENT is made up of just one exam, which is covered by kill4exam pdf training

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
Total Questions: 309 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 11, 2017

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 100-105

Kill4exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three
predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera’s I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which of the following conditions has to be met to use multicast streaming?
A. The network infrastructure has to support multicast
B. The client has to run AXIS Camera Management or AXIS Camera Station
C. The client has to support streaming over RTSP
D. The video device needs to run on firmware version 5.20 or higher
100-105  exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
With Axis Coverage Shapes, the designer can
A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.
B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.
C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.
D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:
A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate
C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio
D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
100-105  dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which is true about P-iris?
A. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that reduces complexity and cost while maintaining
image quality
B. In bright situations. P-iris limits the closing of the iris to avoid blurring caused by diffraction when the iris
opening becomes too small
C. The P-iris delivers the optimal depth of field by always using the smallest possible aperture for the
available lightning
D. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that allows the iris to react to rapidly changing lighting
conditions
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
The Axis pixel counter allows a user to
A. Convert pixels to actual distances.
B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.
C. Determine the file size for each video frame.
D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.
100-105  vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which of the following actions can be taken using the AXIS T8414 Installation Display? (Choose two)
A. Power up a PoE camera
B. Make snapshots
C. Access a camera’s home page
D. Reset a camera to factory default values
E. Read user documentation for cameras
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
If a camera is pointed down a hallway with no windows and the color seems “washed out” or faded, which
of the following settings should first be adjusted to improve the image?
A. Decrease image brightness
B. Increase image contrast
C. Uncheck backlight compensation
D. Adjust the exposure settings
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
In a switched network with Unicast
A. Data packets are sent only to one recipient no other computers will receive the data.
B. Data packets can only be sent in one direction, for example from the camera to the server.
C. Only one camera at a time can send data packets through the network, to avoid congestion.
D. All data packets are transmitted in a unified size, enabling network optimization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Who should be responsible for documenting a video surveillance installation?
A. The camera manufacturer
B. The customer’s security manager
C. The customer’s IT department
D. The integrator
100-105  vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
A Privacy mask added to Live View (Choose two)
A. Hides parts of the scene.
B. Restricts access to the camera.
C. Can be removed from recorded video.
D. Lowers the bandwidth usage.
E. Can be made into any shape.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
An analog system that should be upgraded to IP using encoders must have the end of the analog signal
terminated. How many Ohm () should that be?
A. 50
B. 70
C. 75
D. 80
100-105  dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
A customer asks for a fixed mini dome with a DC-iris lens. 2.8-10 mm varifocal lens and wide dynamic
range. Which of the following cameras is the only choice to fit all of the requirements?
A. AXIS P3301
B. AXIS M3203
C. AXIS Q1604
D. AXIS M5014
Correct Answer: A

This was my first Cisco 100-105 pdf exam, but I have a number of different certifications under my belt from 10 years of work experience, mostly related to server virtualization or network security.

Due to that I still had a fair amount of basic layer 2 and 3 networking knowledge when I started studying just 4 days ago. My biggest problem was that while I had a good theoretical understanding, I had no prior practical Kill4exam http://www.kill4exam.com/100-105.html  pdf network-side device setup and administration experience, since I currently work separate from the network team more on the server side. I had no access to a Cisco device either, so I used the GNS3 simulator, which turned out to be extremely useful.

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[2017-June-02]100% Pass Rate 210-255 Dumps – CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Dumps with New Discount on Vimeo New 2017

The advantage of subsequent a method of material and working off a preset selection of Flydumps 210-255  dumps is usually that you are pressured to work on rules that you just will never choose to tackle. I say I didn’ t choose to address it, but who wishes kids to broaden up believing that everything will surface to Flydumps 210-255 dumps by making use of “The Secret” or through the federal government, or somebody else’s endeavours?

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Total Questions: 65 Q&As
Updated on: May 23, 2017
Exam Information: http://www.flydumps.com/210-255.html

Major Flydumps 210-255  dumps topics include

  • Endpoint Threat Analysis and Computer Forensics
  • Network Intrusion Analysis
  • Incident Response
  • Data and Event Analysis
  • Incident Handling
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  • A full practice exam delivered in the Pearson Test Prep Engine

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210-255

Flydumps Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 40
You work as the systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You have just completed configuring the / Network default view in Mac OS X Server v10.4. Which of the following will see this view?
A. all users
B. unbound DHCP users
C. users connected via VPN
D. bound unmanaged users

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
What is the effect of selecting “Map All users to nobody” when you configure NFS export settings for a share point?
A. Export of any items or contents to any users will be prevented.
B. The group nobody that is used for NFS access is created.
C. The NFS server treats every user the same as nobody.
D. The NFS server identifies all users by their client settings.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. You are configuring a user account in Workgroup Manager. Which of the following password types would require that the user authenticates via Mac OS X Server password server?
A. Crypt
B. Shadow
C. Open Directory
D. Kerberos Distribution

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
Where in the graphical user interface of Mac OS X Server v10.4 would you configure Service Access Control Lists?
A. In Server Admin under the Settings pane associated with general services
B. In Server Admin under the Settings pane associated with each services
C. In Workgroup Manager Accounts User or Group panes
D. In Workgroup Manager Sharing Access pane

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
You work as a systems administer at Certkiller .com. You want to manage user preference for the login window appearance and for auto-logout on a Mac OS X Server v10.4 computer. You choose the Always option. What effect will this configuration have at startup?
A. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will not be able to access their login preferences in Accounts preferences.
B. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access and make changes to their login preferences in Accounts preferences.
C. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access their login preferences an Accounts preferences but they will not be able to change them.
D. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access their login preferences in Accounts preferences and make changes to them, but their changes will be overridden by the administrator settings at the next startup.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which of the following tasks does the new Preference Manifests feature in Mac OS X Server v10.4 allow a Workgroup Manager to perform?
A. Access application preferences.
B. Associate preferences to a computer record.
C. Store a common set of preferences in a directory.
D. Read related blocks of managed preferences at user login.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
You work as a systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You create a SMB share point on a Mac OS X Server v10.4 server. You configure the system to allow users to create files and folders on the share point. Which of the following statements are true regarding newly created files and folders on the share point? (Choose Two)
A. You can assign permission on shared folders.
B. Sharing files permissions are defined by the umask.
C. You can set shared files to inherit permission from the parent folder.
D. Owner and group always get Read & write permission to shared files.
E. The permissions you set files and folder do not apply to administrators.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 47
In what order will your Apple File Server attempt to authenticate a user when you choose “Any” as the authentication method for the Apple File Server?
A. Standard first, then Kerberos and then SSH.
B. SSH first, then Standard and then Kerberos.
C. Kerberos first and then Standard.
D. Standard first, then Kerberos.
E. Kerberos first and then SSH.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
What is a printer pool in the Mac OS X Server v10.4 print service?
A. A string identifying the printer manufacturer.
B. A utility that identifies the model of the printer that is shared.
C. The protocol used to access network print queues.
D. A queue that can have more than one printer assigned to it.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When should you enable strict locking in Mac OS X Server v10.4? (Choose Two)
A. When you share a volume over FTP.
B. When you share a volume over AFP.
C. When you share a volume over SMB.
D. When you share a volume over SFTP.
Correct Answer: BC

210-255

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