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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 5
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 6
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a  DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A situation can occur where the interface MTU is at a high value, for example 9000, while the real value of the size of packets that can be forwarded over this interface is 1500.

QUESTION 8
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routi

QUESTION 9
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to
  transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.

E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing

QUESTION 13
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After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the

QUESTION 14
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID. The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the rout

QUESTION 15
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.

G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: BG
Explanation/Reference:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing

QUESTION 16
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.

E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation/Reference:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -andgt; A and E are correct. The command andquot;show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about V

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Q&As(24-52)

Question No : 24  A Service Provider wants to extend MPLS WAN endpoints in the cloud at the edge of a customer network within the cloud. Which platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco NX-OS
B. Cisco CSR1000v
C. Cisco ISR Routers running IOS
D. Cisco CRS-1
E. Cisco ASR Routers running IOS-XR
400-201 exam Answer: B
Due to recent acquisitions, a company’s MPLS infrastructure is growing very quickly. Concerns arise about labeling each and every IP address on the service provider core network. The IP address space is designed as per following: Service provide ip address range is: 10.0.0.0/16• All loopback addresses use subnet mask /32 10.0.0.0/24 range is used for loopback addresses All other subnet masks used for links are /24 and /25

Question No : 25 Which command would significantly reduce the label allocations without compromising LDP functionalities?
A. ip prefix-list Llst1 deny 10.0.0./16 le 20 ge 25
!
mpls Idp label
allocate global prefix-list List1
B. access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 mpls Idp neighbor 10.0.0.1 labels accept 3
C. mpls Idp labelallocate global host-routes
D. mpls Idp password required for 10
!
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.1access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.2
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.3
Answer: C

Question No : 26  A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPs for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3108, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP4
400-201 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 27 In a virtualization concept, which is one of the characteristic of the HVR solution?
A. introduces significant contention of resources
B. implements shared control plane resources
C. implements dedicated chassis resources
D. implements dedicated data plane resources
Answer: D

Question No : 28 In MPLS-enabled network, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to traditional VPLS?
A. Use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
B. Per flow load balancing
C. Optimized learning and flooding process
D. Leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. No need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
F. Use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
400-201 pdf Answer: B,C

Question No : 29 The Internal Rate of Return is:
A.The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B.The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C.The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D.The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer:D

Question No : 30 What is product based planning?
A.A technique that marketing departments use to launch new products and services.
B.A technique that seeks to identify tasks and activities
C.A technique that monitors the progress of the project
D.A technique that concentrates on the identification and definition of what the project is to deliver

 400-201 vce Answer:D

Question No : 31 Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. “The design authority is responsible for?”
A.Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B.The programme
C.Business integrity within the programme
D.Technical integrity across projects
Answer:D

Question No : 32 End Project Reviews should be used to:
A.Identify who was responsible for any failures
B.Consider support requirements
C.Capture lessons learned for future projects of a similar nature
D.Agree when the project team can be released for other work
400-201 exam Answer:C

Question No : 33 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a Project Initiation Document / Terms of Reference?
A.Detailed Analysis
B.Timescales
C.Risks
D.Objectives
Answer:A

Question No : 34 Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing?
A. In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
B. The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
C. The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
D. The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
Answer: C

Question No : 35 The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits
A. The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044
B. The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.
C. The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.
D. The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.
Answer: D

Question No : 36
Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project?
A. Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis
B. Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code
C. Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder
D. Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort
400-201 pdf
Answer: A
The cancellation of a current major development project has released resources. The development manager has decided to respond to his own request to tender and has proposed an in-house development with the use of a Rapid Application Development (RAO) approach.

Question No : 37 
Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits
A. It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.
B. It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.
C. Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.
D. More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.
Answer: B

Question No : 38 Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach?
A. Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing
B. Project management and control
C. No complete requirements specification
D. Time-boxing
 400-201 vce Answer: B

Question No : 39
As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use?
A. Decision Table Testing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Error Guessing
D. Exploratory Testing
Answer: D

Question No : 40
The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits
A. Percentage of business requirements exercised
B. Percentage of planned hours worked this week
C. Percentage of countries that have test scenarios
D. Percentage of test iterations completed
400-201 exam Answer: A
The following is the current incident handling process in used at the company.
Step 1: Incident is documented in the incident Tile with the following information:
– Software module or area where the fault occurred
– Who has reported the fault
– Hardware configuration used for the test that found the fault
– The sequential incident number (1 greater than the last one recorded)
Step 2: Developer assigned to fix the fault
Step 3: Developer fixes the fault
Step 4: Developer signs off the incident as closed, and it is then removed from the incident file

Question No : 41
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits
A. No priority or severity assigned
B. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
C. No mentioning of reproduceability
D. No classification on type of incident
Answer: A
You are a test manager in charge of integration, system and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing ATM to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances from €20 to €500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, VISA, Eurocard and Mastercard. In the master test plan the following items are listed in the section named “items and/or features to be tested”:
I All supported credit cards
II Language localization
II Valid and invalid advances
IV Usability
V Response time

Question No : 42
Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits
A. All supported credit cards
B. Language localization
C. Valid and invalid advances
D. Usability
E. Response time
Answer: A, C

Question No : 43 Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits
A. An approach to regression testing
B. A list of boundary values for “advance amount”
C. A description of dependencies between test cases
D. A logical collection of test cases
Answer: A

Question No : 44
Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run?
A. 700
B. 720
C. 784
D. 570
400-201 pdf Answer: B

Question No : 45 Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing – showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase?
A. Acceptance testing to verify the business process
B. Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
C. Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
D. Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution
Answer: D

Question No : 46 Which of the following bar code types is readable by a 1D scanner?
A. Maxicode
B. Data matrix
C. QR Code
D. Interleaved 2 of 5
 400-201 vce Answer: D

Question No : 47
Which of the following bar codes is NOT considered two dimensional bar code?
A. Code 39
B. PDF 417
C. QR Code
D. Data matrix
Answer: A

Question No : 48
Which of the following communication interfaces CANNOT be used by an application to senddata/scanner commands bi-directionally?
A. USB SNAPI
B. RS-232SSI
C. USB
D. OPOS
E. Keyboard Wedge
400-201 exam Answer: E

Question No : 49 The ability of a scanner to decode a barcode even when there is relative motion between the barcode and the scanner is called:
A. Ambient light immunity
B. Aiming pattern
C. Omni-directionality
D. Motion Tolerance
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 50
You have a Request for Proposal for a customer that will be receiving cars in a car rental location, customer wants to read the car’s VIN barcode, take an image of the license plate and record customer specific information. The customer is price sensitive and they don’t want to buy a mobile computer. Which of the following items would you recommend for this customer?
A. LS300S
B. LS920Si
C. MK500 touch screen
D. MT2090 with 2D imager
 400-201 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 51
Your customer wishes to decode the three types of bar codes from the image below.
Bar codes of this type are typically used on which of the following items?
A. Produce
B. Postal Items
C. Clothes and other Retail items
D. Overnight package tracking
E. Vehicles for toll collection
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52
You have a government customer that just opened a bid in Latin America for a company with 1,000 convenience stores located in small cities across Mexico and EI Salvador. The customer requires the support of both 1 and 2D scanning with the same device and a minimum of 2 per store. The customer is price sensitive. Which of the following scanner combinations would you recommend?
A. LS1203 – Corded
B. LS2208 – Corded
C. LS4208 – Corded
D. LS4278 – Cordless
E. DS4208 – Corded
F. DS6707-SR – Corded
G. DS6878-SR-Cordless
H. DS9808-SR – Corded
400-201 pdf Answer: E

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QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. Subsequent to deploying a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, you are instructed to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to the server. You want to achieve this goal from the command prompt. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of the dism.exe command.
B. You should consider making use of the dsquery.exe command.

C. You should consider making use of the dsadd.exe command.
D. You should consider making use of the dsrm.exe command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Hyper-V hosts contains several virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Network Load Balancing feature on the virtual machines. You need to configure the virtual machines to support Network Load Balancing (NLB). Which virtual machine settings should you configure?
A. Port mirroring
B. DHCP guard
C. Router guard
D. MAC address
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. The forest contains five domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps

You need to configure DC5 as a global catalog server. Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You have received instructions to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on a server, named L2P-SR07. You want to achieve this remotely from a server, named L2P-SR06. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR07.
B. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR06.
C. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR07.
D. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR06.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
B. New-StoragePool
C. Diskpart
D. Share and Storage Management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are in the process of installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, named L2P-SR13. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to a installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Server Graphical Shell is installed, but not enabled.
B. Server roles can be configured locally via the command prompt using Windows PowerShell.
C. Server roles can be configured locally via Server Manager.
D. You are able to access the Microsoft Management Console locally.

E. The Desktop Experience is not available.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 25
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Correct Answer: C
70-410 exam 
QUESTION 26
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
70-410 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: A
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 67
Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?
A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree

D. storm control
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Voice VLAN Configuration Guidelines You should configure voice VLAN on switch access ports. The voice VLAN should be present and active on the switch for the IP phone to correctly communicate on the voice VLAN. Use the show vlan privileged EXEC command to see if the VLAN is present (listed in the display). The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice VLAN is configured. When you disable voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically disabled.
QUESTION 68
In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?
A. within the Ethernet header
B. within the Ethernet payload
C. within the Ethernet FCS
D. within the Ethernet source MAC address
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Frame format

300-115 dumps

Insertion of 802.1Q tag in an Ethernet frame 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame. Instead, for Ethernet frames, it adds a 32-bit field between the source MAC address and the EtherType/length fields of the original frame Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch?
A. VLANs 1-1001
B. VLANs 1-4094
C. VLANs 2-1001
D. VLANs 2-4094
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning should only be enabled on VTP servers, all the clients in the VTP domain will automatically enable VTP pruning. By default, VLANs 2 1001 are pruning eligible, but VLAN 1 can’t be pruned because it’s an administrative VLAN. Both VTP versions 1 and 2 supports pruning.
QUESTION 70
Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?
A. VTP pruning
B. port-security
C. storm control
D. bpdguard
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic.
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

The users in an engineering department that connect to the same access switch cannot access the network. The network engineer found that the engineering VLAN is missing from the database. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Disable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
B. Update the VTP revision number.
C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.
D. Enable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only VTP servers can add new VLANs to the switched network, so to enable vlan 10 on this switch you will first need to change the VTP mode from client to server. Then, you will need to enable 802.1Q trunking to pass this new VLAN along to the other switches.
QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

The network switches for two companies have been connected and manually configured for the required VLANs, but users in company A are not able to access network resources in company B when DTP is enabled. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Delete vlan.dat and ensure that the switch with lowest MAC address is the VTP server.
B. Disable DTP and document the VTP domain mismatch.
C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.
D. Enable the company B switch with the vtp mode server command.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since the number of existing VLANs differ on the switches (9 on A and 42 on B) we know that there is a problem with VTP or the trunking interfaces. The VTP domain names do match and they are both VTP servers so there are no issues there. The only viable solution is that there is a DTP issues and so you must instead manually configure the trunk ports between these two switches so that the VLAN information can be sent to each switch.

QUESTION 73
In MPLS, how is the label range 0 ?15 used?
A. Static LSPs
B. Reserved use
C. Vendor proprietary use
D. Management LSPs
E. Dynamic LSPs
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which of the following are characteristics of ECMP LSPs in LDP? Choose three answers
A. Liberal label retention mode
B. T-LDP enabled with peers to which load balancing is desired.
C. ECMP enabled in the config>router context.
D. Hashing used to select the egress label.
E. Export policy applied to advertise multiple labels for a given FEC.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 75
LDP is enabled on both ends of a point-to-point link, but the “show router Idp status” command indicates that LDP is operationally down. The Oper Down Reason field shows the message “systemIpDown.” What might cause this condition?
A. The LSP is in the administrative down state.
B. The router’s router ID overlaps another.
C. The router’s interfaces do not have LDP running.
D. The router’s system interface requires an IP address
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Click on the exhibit button.
The policy on router R2 is applied as an LDP export policy. What FECs now appear in router R2’s LIB?
A. Local FECs, not including those in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space.
B. Only system ID FECs may appear in the LIB.
C. Any local FECs, except those with a 24 bit mask.
D. Local FECs in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space
Correct Answer: A

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-685 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
The chief financial officer (CFO) releases new guidelines that specify that only users from finance are allowed to run FinanceApp1.
Users in the Marketing OU report that they can run FinanceApp1.
  You need to ensure that only users in the Finance OU can run FinanceApp1. What should you do?
A. In the AllComputers GPO, create a new AppLocker executable rule.
B. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a new Windows Installer rule.
C. In the AllComputers GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new hash rule.
D. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new path rule.
070-685 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Chapter 10 p 467- 468
Understanding the difference between SRP and AppLocker You might want to deploy application control policies onto Windows operating systems earlier than Windows Server2008R2 or Windows7. You can use AppLocker policies only on the supported editions of Windows Server2008R2 and Windows7, but you can use SRP on supported editions of Windows beginning with Windows Server2003 and WindowsXP.
QUESTION 2
Users in the ERPApp1 pilot project report intermittent application issues. You need to consolidate all application events for the users in a central location. What should you do?
A. Configure event subscriptions.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
070-685 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

A. Configure event subscriptions. Event Viewer enables you to view events on a single remote computer. However, troubleshooting an issue might require you to examine a set of events stored in multiple logs on multiple computers. Windows 7 includes the ability to collect copies of events from multiple remote computers and store them locally. To specify which events to collect, you create an
event subscription. Among other details, the subscription specifies exactly which events will be collected and in which log they will be stored locally. Once a subscription is active and events are being collected, you can view and manipulate these forwarded events as you would any other locally stored events.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
You can create a filter that includes events from multiple event logs that satisfy specified criteria. You can then name and save that filter as a custom view. To apply the filter associated with a saved custom view, you navigate to the custom view in the console tree and click its name.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
You can create a custom Data Collector Set containing performance counters and configure alert activities based on the performance counters exceeding or dropping below limits you define. After creating the Data Collector Set, you must configure the actions the system will take when the alert criteria are met. Membership in the local Performance Log Users or Administrators group, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete these procedures.

070-685 dumps

QUESTION 3
The help desk reports that users in the Marketing OU print draft documents, e-mails, and other miscellaneous documents on Printer2. You need to recommend a solution so that marketing users print documents to Printer1 by default.  What should you do?
A. Enable printer pooling.
B. Configure Group Policy Preferences.
C. Modify the priorities of the shared printers.
D. Modify the permissions of the shared printers.
070-685 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Action: This type of preference item provides a choice of four actions: Create, Replace, Update, and Delete. The behavior of the preference item varies with the action selected and whether the printer connection already exists. Set this printer as the default printer – Select this check box to make the shared printer connection the default Windows printer for the current user. Only if a local printer is not present – Select this check box to bypass changing the default printer if there is a local printer configured on the computer. This setting is unavailable until you select the Set this printer as the default printer check box. Note: A local printer is any printer that is not connected to a shared network printer. This includes physical printers connected to parallel, serial, and USB ports, TCP/IP printers, and virtual printers installed through software. To create a new Shared Printer preference item Open the Group Policy Management Console. Right-click the Group Policy object (GPO) that should contain the new preference item, and then click Edit. In the console tree under User Configuration, expand the Preferences folder, and then expand the Control Panel Settings folder.
Right-click the Printers node, point to New, and select Shared Printer. In the New Shared Printer Properties dialog box, select an Action for Group Policy to perform. Enter shared printer settings for Group Policy to configure or remove. Click the Common tab, configure any options, and then type your comments in the Description box. Click OK. The new preference item appears in the details pane.
QUESTION 4
The Office1 network link is brought offline for emergency maintenance. Users in Office2 and Office3 report that they cannot connect to the wireless network. You need to recommend changes to ensure that users in all offices can connect to the wireless network if a WAN link fails. What should you recommend?
A. that redundant DHCP scopes be created
B. that additional RADIUS servers be deployed
C. that universal group caching be implemented
D. that additional default gateways be configured
070-685 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

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QUESTION NO: 37
A switching fabric switch port is connected to a fiber optic hub port, then see from this port fiber switch type yes.
A. G-Port
B. E-Port
C. F-Port
D. FL-Port
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
S2600 series storage arrays do not support port type ()
A. SAS host ports
B. SAS expander port
C. FC host ports
D. FC cascade port
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Import and export configuration information via the ISM, which operate under the entry of the navigation tree
A. Configuration Assistant
B. System Configuration
C. Device Information
D. Mapping
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
When installed on Windows 2003 UltraPath for Windows, in Device Manager:
A. Successful installation displays “UltraPath Device Specific Module”
B. If the installation is successful, displays “Multi-Path Support”
C. Successful installation displays “Multi-Path Device Specific Module”
D. If the installation is successful, displays “UltraPath Support”
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 41
FC protocol, FC-2 layer defines: (Choose two)
A. Coding Standards
B. Decoding standard
C. Flow Control
D. Frame Agreement
210-260 pdf Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 42
Hard disk capacity is what factors determine the size of? (Choose three)
A. Number of heads
B. Sectors
C. Number of tracks
D. Number of cylinders
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 43
All of the following are the reporting standards in government auditing EXCEPT:
A. The auditor should plan the audit in a manner which ensures that an audit of high quality is carried out in an economic, efficient, and effective way and in a timely manner.
B. It is for the SAI to which they belong to decide finally on the action to be taken in relation to fraudulent practices or serious irregularities discovered by the auditors.
C. At the end of each audit the auditor should prepare a written opinion or report, as appropriate, setting out the findings in an appropriate form; its content should be easy to understand and be independent, objective, fair, and constructive.
D. The work of the audit staff at each level and audit phase should be properly supervised during the audit; and documented work should be reviewed by a senior member of the audit staff.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 44
With regard to __________, the auditor should prepare a written report, which may either be a part of the report on the ____________ or a separate report on the tests of compliance with applicable laws and regulations. The report should contain a statement of positive assurance on those items tested for compliance and negative assurance on those items not tested:
A. Income statements, financial audits
B. Financial statements, regularity audits
C. Regularity audits, financial statements
D. operational audits, financial statements
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
The _______________ mission is to serve the public interest, strengthen the global accountancy profession, and contribute to the development of strong international economies by establishing and promoting adherence to high-quality professional standards, furthering the international convergence of such standards, and speaking out on public interest issues where the profession’s
expertise is most relevant:
A. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
B. The International Federation of Accountants (IFAC)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
D. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
Which committee of IFAC issues pronouncements aimed at developing and harmonizing public sector financial reporting, accounting, and auditing practices while “Public sector” refers to national governments, regional (state, provincial, territorial) governments, local (city, town) governments, and related governmental entities (agencies, boards, commissions, and enterprises)?
A. Advisory committee
B. Ethic’s committee
C. Public Sector Committee (PSC)
D. general rules and regulation committee
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
The auditors of public sector entities may be required to report on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. reporting to the owners
B. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities;
C. Adequacy of accounting and internal control systems;
D. Economy, efficiency, and effectiveness of programs, projects, and activities.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
All of the following are the objectives of an audit EXCEPT:
A. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities.
B. the auditor’s opinion enhances the credibility of the financial statements, the user Cannot assume that the opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the entity nor the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the entity.
C. The phrases used to express the auditor’s opinion are “give a true and fair view” or “present fairly, in all material respects,” which are equivalent terms.
D. The objective of an audit of financial statements is to enable the auditor to express an opinion whether the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with and identified financial reporting framework.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
The auditor should comply with the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants issued by the International Federation of Accountants. All of the following are the ethical principles governing the auditor’s professional responsibilities EXCEPT:
A. Independence and integrity.
B. Professional competence and due care and confidentiality.
C. Professional behavior and Technical standards.
D. No confidentiality;
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
The term _________ refers to the audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances to achieve the objective of the audit. The procedures required to conduct an audit in accordance with _________ should be determined by the auditor having regard to the requirements of ISAs, relevant professional bodies, legislation, and regulations:
A. Scope of an audit, ISAs
B. Purpose of an audit, ISAs
C. Principle of an audit, ISAs
D. Purpose of an audit, PSPs
Answer: A

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Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
Q&As: 230

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QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following is an example of a cloud-related security risk?
A. Losing network connectivity
B. Not having enough software licenses
C. Not knowing what the cloud provider will charge
D. Storing customer data at a provider
CLO-001 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Why do management tools introduce a risk?
A. The management tools present a vendor lock-in
B. The management tools are indispensible above a specific scale of operation
C. The migration may not be successful
D. Too many software licenses are needed
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
How do demand management processes change with the introduction of SaaS?
A. New vendors have to be accommodated
B. Users can procure SaaS solutions themselves
C. The number of virtual machines can fluctuate with demand
D. Maintenance will become easier
CLO-001 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Why does hardware and operating system maintenance take less effort with SaaS?
A. Maintenance becomes irrelevant
B. Cloud provider takes care of it
C. Hardware vendor takes care of it
D. Operating system vendor takes care of it
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of virtualization?
A. Security features
B. Federated identities
C. Shared hardware
D. Sourcing challenges
CLO-001 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following is the MOST complex security provisioning problem in a cloud environment?
A. Handling credit cards for purchasing cloud services
B. Keeping track of cloud provider performance
C. Managing users and their rights across multiple providers
D. Software assets that are introduced and can expire
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
CLO-001 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Eucalyptus is open-source software for quickly provisioning virtual servers. This is an example of:
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Why do business users prefer to deal with cloud providers directly, instead of via the IT department?
A. It reduces financial risks to the business
B. The IT department does not accommodate variable costs
C. They can better measure the provider’s quality
D. They can use their own payment options
CLO-001 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Why does request fulfillment become more complicated in a cloud environment?
A. All processes must become automated.
B. Processes must be redesigned with the user experience in mind.
C. The IT service team must be expanded.
D. Users should be aware of the benefits before changes to the process are incorporated
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Private clouds are operated solely for organization(s)
A. governmental
B. specific
C. for-profit
D. multiple
CLO-001 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Why are traditional chargeback systems not compatible with cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing is low cost and does not accommodate charge back fees
B. Cloud computing can be more expensive than in-house capacity
C. Licensing models can become outdated quickly
D. Resources that are used can fluctuate throughout the budget cycle
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
How does cloud computing improve business flexibility?
A. Easier access by users outside of the organization
B. Faster deployment of applications
C. Rapidly growing and shrinking capacity
D. All of the above are correct
CLO-001 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
How can cloud-related financial risks be managed?
A. Credit cards must be used for handling transactions
B. Eliminating legacy IT systems
C. Making sure that cloud assets are generating revenue
D. Renegotiating license agreements
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which represents the MOST important business continuity risk?
A. Incomplete Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B. Network connectivity interruption
C. Privacy laws
D. Providers going out of business
CLO-001 vce Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following is a private SaaS?
A. An application for external use only, on company-owned assets.
B. An application for external use only, on public cloud-based systems.
C. An application for internal use only, on company-owned assets.
D. An application for internal use only, on public cloud-based systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parameters
C. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
CLO-001 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Cloud computing has the greatest benefit for which of the following user populations?
A. User populations which steadily increase in size.
B. User populations that vary and are unpredictable.
C. User populations that are of fixed size.
D. User populations that vary in size on a seasonal basis.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44
Google Apps is a set of online applications allowing users to create and share documents and spreadsheets. This is an example of:
A. PaaS
B. SaaS.
C. IaaS.
D. None of the above.
CLO-001 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
Which of the following is a limitation of owning servers?
A. Inability to deploy new services quickly
B. Inability to rapidly change to a different technology
C. Capital tied up in hardware that might become obsolete
D. Additional resources must be hired to maintain each server
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
CLO-001 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1) You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data. You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site. You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed. What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
70-463 exam 
Answer: A
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night. The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large. If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value. The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50. Many values are incorrectly matched. You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance. What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS). You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model. Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically. You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
70-463 dumps 
Answer: B,F
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package named DataFeed interacts with an external vendor data feed. The package is executed several times a day, either as part of other packages’ control flow or by itself. The external data feed is unreliable because network failures and slow response times are frequent. The package is currently deployed
on the file system. To analyze the reliability of the external data feed, you must collect execution data. Every time the DataFeed package is executed, the following information must be logged:
Start Time
End Time
Execution Result
Execution Duration
You need to design a logging solution that meets the requirements by using the least amount of administrative and development effort. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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QUESTION NO: 5
Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she’d like to optimize her ad for conversion.
D. Google won’t automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
70-463 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network. 
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the Content Network with ‘Relevant pages across the entire network’ in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement. Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
You’re reviewing a campaign you’ve created for your company with your manager. The manager is curious about the budget setting on the campaign’s tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It’s the maximum amount you’ll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A technician would like to ensure that when users connect to a web server in a server farm, they connect
to the server with the lowest CPU utilization. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?
A. Load balancing
B. High availability
C. Virtual machine
D. Reverse proxy
SK0-003 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Changing the boot order of devices can be configured from which of the following?
A. DIP switches
B. BIOS
C. Chipset
D. Control Panel
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an advantage of using non-ECC memory over ECC memory?
A. ECC is faster than non-ECC
B. Non-ECC is faster than ECC
C. Non-ECC is more expensive than ECC
D. Non-ECC checks for memory errors
SK0-003 dump 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Before installing a new device, a technician checks to make sure the device is on the HCL. Which of the
following is the advantage of having an HCL device?
A. It is supported by other vendors
B. Increases performance
C. Decreases cost
D. Meets vendor standards
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of
memory supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
SK0-003 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
A technician has installed an additional NIC on a server. Which of the following can now be setup?
A. Teaming
B. VLANs
C. Port forwarding
D. Full duplex
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
A technician is setting up a network and wants to automatically assign IP addresses. Which of the
following will need to be configured to automatically assign IP addresses?
A. WINS
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. NTP
SK0-003 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A technician is building a Windows 2008 server and has installed a motherboard, processor, and power
supply. Which of the following optical drives should the technician install?
A. Flash Drive
B. DVD-RW
C. CD-ROM
D. SSD
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Typically, warranty information can be found on a vendor’s website by looking up which of the following?
A. Original hardware configuration
B. Service manual
C. Service tag
D. Model number
SK0-003 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
When purchasing a UPS for a server room, which of the following are important factors to consider?
(Select TWO).
A. Network card configuration
B. Remote access procedures
C. Estimated runtime
D. Maximum load
E. Power cord length
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
A new server must be configured to provide fault tolerant connectivity to the DMZ and the backend
database. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. A total of six NICs: two pairs of teamed NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
B. One NIC can be configured with VLANs for the DMZ and backend database.

C. A total of eight NICs to be teamed with the appropriate VLANs configured for the DMZ and backend
database.
D. A total of four NICs: two NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
SK0-003 dump Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE about a caching name server? (Select TWO).
A. They must have a trusted SSL certificate
B. They can be authoritative
C. They cannot be load-balanced
D. They can be recursive
E. They require DHCP
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13
A technician needs to deploy a new Internet facing web server and internal database server. The web
server will use the database backend to retrieve shopping cart information. Which of the following
configuration utilizes the LEAST resources?
A. Both servers will be virtualized on the same host server. The web server will be configured with an
Internet facing NIC connected to the host’s hardware NIC and a backend NIC connected to a virtual
switch. The database server NIC will be connected to the same virtual switch.
B. The database server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with one physical NIC.
The web server will be installed on new hardware and will utilize two physical NICs to separate
backend traffic from frontend Internet communication.
C. The web server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with two physical NICs, one
NIC for backend and one for backend communication. The database server will be installed on new
hardware to ensure maximum performance.
D. Both servers will be virtualized on a pair of redundant host servers. Both the web server and the
database server will share the same hardware resources. The web server will be configured with one
NIC for both frontend and backend communication and the databases server will also have one NIC.
SK0-003 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that
the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the
technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.

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QUESTION 18
Which executable is used to create tables in the LANDesk?database?
A. DBBUILD.EXE
B. DBMERGE.EXE
C. DBREPAIR.EXE
D. COREDBUTIL.EXE
210-250 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Where can you change the database connection information for LANDesk?Management Suite? (Choose
two.)
A. in the ODBC System DSN
B. in the Management Suite console in the Configure Services utility
C. HKLM\Software\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\Core\Connections\Local
D. HKLM\Software\Intel\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\Core\Connections\Local

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which two directories contain the trusted certificate hash file (<hashname>.0)? (Choose two.)
A. Keys
B. Utilities
C. LDMain
D. LDLogon
E. LANDesk?
210-250 dump Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 21
Which four submenus appear under the Standard LANDesk Agent menu in Client Configuration in the
Client Setup tool? (Choose four.)
A. Local Scheduler
B. Inventory Scanner
C. Bandwidth Detection
D. Software Distribution
E. Client Reboot Options
F. Application Policy Management
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 22
What is the default temporary install directory used during client setup?
A. %temp%
B. C:\$ldcfg$
C. C:\$ldclient$
D. %windir%\temp
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
What are the four options for Start the Inventory Scan in Client Configuration? (Choose four.)
A. frequency
B. run as service
C. local scheduler
D. IP address change
E. manually from device
F. start from the Startup folder
G. at startup using the Run key Registry setting
Correct Answer: ADEG
QUESTION 24
What is the purpose of the registry values contained in the
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\LANDesk\ManagementSuite\WinClient registry key?
A. It contains video driver information used by the Remote Control agent.
B. It specifies the database connection strings that point to the database.
C. It contains the date the client was last configured and the path it is installed to.

D. It contains a list of LANDesk?components that have been installed on a workstation.
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
You have configured the inventory scanner in your client configuration named “Accounting” to run at
startup from the Run Registry key. You want to modify your “Accounting” client configuration to display the
GUI when the inventory scanner runs at startup.
Which file should you edit to make the changes permanent for this client configuration only?
A. LDCLIENT.INI
B. NTSTACFG.IN#
C. ACCOUNTING.INI
D. ACCOUNTING.IN#
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Your network consists of two sites connected by a high-speed WAN link with a single LANDesk?
Management Suite domain.
Login scripts have been used for LANDesk client deployment.
Several days ago you modified your default client configuration. Workstations at the main site are
reconfigured with the new settings, but the remote site workstations are not.
Why haven’t the remote site workstations been reconfigured?
A. WSCFG32.EXE was not run with the appropriate command line switches.
B. The scheduler service was not configured with the proper domain credentials.
C. The login script at the remote site was not updated with the new client configuration.
D. The Client Deployment Service Center at the remote site was not updated with the new client
configuration.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which command line parameter of WSCFG32.EXE allows you to specify which client configuration file to
use?
A. /C
B. /F
C. /I
D. /N
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
How must the LANDesk?client be initially deployed to a Macintosh client?
A. manually, using WSCFG32.EXE
B. manually, from the INSTALL\MAC folder
C. manually, from the LDLOGON\MAC folder
D. by scheduling the EXE package created in the Client Setup tool
210-250 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. He is responsible for securing all 15
servers of the company. To successfully accomplish the task, he enables the hardware and
software firewalls and disables all unnecessary services on all the servers. Sales manager of the
company asks Adam to run emulation software on one of the servers that requires the telnet
service to function properly. Adam is concerned about the security of the server, as telnet can be a
very large security risk in an organization. Adam decides to perform some footprinting, scanning,
and penetration testing on the server to checkon the server to check the security. Adam telnets
into the server and writes the following command:
HEAD / HTTP/1.0
After pressing enter twice, Adam gets the following results:

Which of the following tasks has Adam just accomplished?
A. Poisoned the local DNS cache of the server.
B. Submitted a remote command to crash the server.
C. Grabbed the banner.
D. Downloaded a file to his local computer.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
The MBR of a hard disk is a collection of boot records that contain disk information such as disk
architecture, cluster size, and so on. The main work of the MBR is to locate and run necessary
operating system files that are required to run a hard disk. In the context of the operating system,
MBR is also known as the boot loader. Which of the following viruses can infect the MBR of a hard
disk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Stealth
B. Boot sector
C. Multipartite
D. File
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for DataEnet Inc. You want to
investigate e-mail information of an employee of the company. The suspected employee is using
an online e-mail system such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local
computer will you review to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. History folder
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Download folder
D. Cookies folder
210-250 pdf Answer: A,B,D

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