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QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. Subsequent to deploying a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, you are instructed to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to the server. You want to achieve this goal from the command prompt. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of the dism.exe command.
B. You should consider making use of the dsquery.exe command.

C. You should consider making use of the dsadd.exe command.
D. You should consider making use of the dsrm.exe command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Hyper-V hosts contains several virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Network Load Balancing feature on the virtual machines. You need to configure the virtual machines to support Network Load Balancing (NLB). Which virtual machine settings should you configure?
A. Port mirroring
B. DHCP guard
C. Router guard
D. MAC address
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. The forest contains five domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to configure DC5 as a global catalog server. Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You have received instructions to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on a server, named L2P-SR07. You want to achieve this remotely from a server, named L2P-SR06. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR07.
B. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR06.
C. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR07.
D. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR06.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
B. New-StoragePool
C. Diskpart
D. Share and Storage Management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are in the process of installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, named L2P-SR13. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to a installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Server Graphical Shell is installed, but not enabled.
B. Server roles can be configured locally via the command prompt using Windows PowerShell.
C. Server roles can be configured locally via Server Manager.
D. You are able to access the Microsoft Management Console locally.

E. The Desktop Experience is not available.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 25
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Correct Answer: C
70-410 exam 
QUESTION 26
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
70-410 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
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Correct Answer: A
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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1) You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data. You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site. You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed. What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
70-463 exam 
Answer: A
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night. The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large. If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value. The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50. Many values are incorrectly matched. You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance. What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS). You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model. Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically. You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
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Answer: B,F
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package named DataFeed interacts with an external vendor data feed. The package is executed several times a day, either as part of other packages’ control flow or by itself. The external data feed is unreliable because network failures and slow response times are frequent. The package is currently deployed
on the file system. To analyze the reliability of the external data feed, you must collect execution data. Every time the DataFeed package is executed, the following information must be logged:
Start Time
End Time
Execution Result
Execution Duration
You need to design a logging solution that meets the requirements by using the least amount of administrative and development effort. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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QUESTION NO: 5
Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she’d like to optimize her ad for conversion.
D. Google won’t automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network. 
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the Content Network with ‘Relevant pages across the entire network’ in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement. Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
You’re reviewing a campaign you’ve created for your company with your manager. The manager is curious about the budget setting on the campaign’s tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It’s the maximum amount you’ll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 40
If loop exists and STP is not enabled, the switch will not operate normally
A. True
B. False
70-761 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.

70-761 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements is not the advantage of STP?
A. STP can manage the redundant links. When the working link is down, network connectivity can be
restored.
B. STP can prevent loops
C. STP can prevent broadcast storm
D. STP can save network bandwidth
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following standards defines STP?
A. 802.1J
B. 802.1X
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1P
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
STP elects ( )
A. One bridge as the Root Bridge and another one as the Backup Root Bridge
B. One bridge as the Root Bridge
C. Two bridges as the Root Bridge
D. One Designated Bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
STP distributes configuration message by sending BPDU packet to each other.
A. True
B. False
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In STP, BPDU packet is carried by ( ).
A. IP packet
B. TCP packet
C. Ethernet frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
In a switching network that has been enabled with STP protocol, the priorities of all the switches are the
same. The MAC address of switch1 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, MAC address of switch2 is 00- e0-fc-00-00-10,
MAC address of switch3 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and MAC address of switch4 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which of
the switches will be elected as the Root Bridge?
A. Switch1

B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
70-761 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A switching network has been enabled with STP protocol. To provide fast access speed to the file server
for most of the users, the switch that is directly connected with file server is configured as the root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU will
time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails, Configuration
BPDU cannot be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following statements about STP is not true?
A. STP can manage redundant links.
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
According to OSI reference model, Layer 2 LAN switch operates at ( ).
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. IP layer
D. Application layer
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
According to the STP protocol, a certain field in the BPDU identifies the root switch. That is, if the BPDU
sent by a switch contains this field, this switch is considered as the root switch. What is this field?
A. Root Identifier
B. Root Path Cost
C. Bridge Identifier
D. Port Identifier
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which are the two parts in the port identifier of the uplink interface on a non-root switch?
A. 1-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
B. 1-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
C. 2-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
D. 2-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
In the network diagram, which switch will be selected as the root switch?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which statements about the PVID on the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. When receiving a packet without the VLAN tag, the interface adds the VLAN tag to the packet and sets
the VID in the tag to the default VLAN ID.
B. When receiving a packet with a VLAN tag, the interface compares the VLAN ID in the tag with the
default VLAN ID. If they are the same, the interface forwards the packets; otherwise, the interface
discards the packets.
C. When the interface sends a packet with a VLAN tag that contains the default VLAN ID, the system
removes the VLAN tag of the packet, and then forwards the packet.
D. None of the above.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 57
Which statement about the hybrid interface is true?
A. A hybrid interface can only be connected to network device.
B. A hybrid interface can only be connected to host.
C. A hybrid interface can be connected to host or network device.
D. A hybrid interface cannot be configured with VLAN ID.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement about MUX VLAN is false?
A. Principal VLAN
B. Subordinate VLAN
C. Subordinate group VLAN
D. Guest VLAN
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three Fibre Channel topologies are used in SAN implementations? (choose three.)
A. arbitrated loop
B. physical
C. switched fabric
D. point-to-point
E. logical
70-774 exam Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a Host Bus Adaptor (HBA)?
A. A compact optical device that connects to switches and transmits and receives data.
B. A device that connects multiple computers together to form a network segment.
C. A non-volatile data storage device.
D. A Fibre Channel interface that connects a computer to a storage network.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
What are two benefits of using snapshots as part of an in-system replication solution? (Choose
two.)
A. Snapshots provide storage-efficient copies of the data.
B. Snapshots create a physical clone of the data.
C. Volumes are restored faster from snapshot copies.
D. Snapshots provide point-in-time data copies.
70-774 dumps Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 4
What are two characteristics of array-based asynchronous remote replication? (Choose two.)
A. It supports server performance under load.
B. It is installed and run on a server.
C. It can be implemented over a WAN.
D. It does not ensure data consistency.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 5
When using IP to transfer data over a network, which protocol re-combines IP packets into the
correct order to re-create the message sent from the source?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. UDP
D. TCP
70-774 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
An online bank wants to improve their environmental credentials by reducing power consumption
and heat output in their data center, but without affecting service levels. Which three strategies
would they use to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Add more data storage.
B. Consolidate existing storage.
C. Reduce data center hotspots.
D. Implement virtualization strategies.
E. Migrate customer data to off-line storage.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 7
Which type of tiered data requires a storage infrastructure that provides reasonable performance
and availability and must recover within 8 hours of a failure?
A. mission-critical data
B. business-critical data
C. nearline data
D. offline data
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which two features help reduce power consumption on a storage system? (Choose two.)
A. on-demand cache partitioning
B. ability to turn off HDDs when not accessed
C. adaptive dual power battery backup
D. dynamic fan speed adjustment
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 9
What is an advantage of cache partitioning?
A. dynamic reallocation of cache resource by performance criteria
B. optimized storage system performance
C. improved security against unauthorized administrative access
D. automated data copy to a secondary partition
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
A large healthcare company wants to implement an object store in their application. Which three
are considered to be an object? (Choose three.)
A. a mirror copy of a data volume
B. an MRI Image file
C. a lab report in pdf format
D. a file services structure of active data
E. an ultrasound video file
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 11
Which two elements are critical to configuring high availability access to storage over a SAN?
(Choose two.)
A. data path management
B. automated path failover
C. diagnosis of performance bottlenecks
D. prioritizing of an application’s server port access
70-774 dumps Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 12
What are the two ways a storage system implements virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. in-band
B. cross-band
C. cascaded
D. out-of-band
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 13
What are two advantages of implementing an Ethernet network in an office environment? (Choose
two.)
A. resource sharing
B. VSAN capabilities
C. centralized management
D. MAC address zoning
70-774 pdf Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
What are two benefits of using performance reporting software? (Choose two).
A. It provides disk subsystem utilization data.
B. It moves elements between storage partitions.
C. It provides workload data for volumes and ports.
D. It migrates data away from storage hot-spots.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which customer type will benefit from a content management platform solution?
A. Customers with a large number of departmental offices in multiple locations.
B. Customers with large numbers of file servers or NAS systems considering an archiving or a
tiering strategy.
C. Customers wanting to improve application availability by reducing downtime caused by
backups.
D. Customers wanting to deploy a structured database for their customer data.
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
Which two statements are correct about array-based data replication? (Choose two.)
A. Write operations to the storage are performed faster.
B. It can run independent of host OS, file system and database.
C. There is only a single current copy of each volume.
D. Data copy volumes can be used offline for development and testing.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
An architect firm wants to simplify how they store and share their designs. The files are high
resolution and will be viewed by many people in the company at their workstations. Each architect
has their own operating system preferences, but the files should be available to all. Which platform
would meet this requirement?
A. a storage system with an iSCSI option installed
B. a storage system with a NAS front-end
C. a storage system with SAS drives and a DAS front-end
D. a storage system that implements a Fibre Channel SAN
70-774 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
A customer has a large number of high performance database servers with DAS. They are
concerned about isolated data and would also like to re-assign unused storage to avoid additional
expenditure and to minimize unexpected loss of access to data. Which solution satisfies the
requirements?
A. Attach all servers directly to their storage.
B. Attach all servers and storage to redundant SAN fabrics.
C. Implement a DAS RAID 5 solution for the database servers.
D. Add a NAS option to the storage and deliver data using file services.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 66

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-537 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
A consultant has been hired to architect a hybrid cloud solution for a client. The consultant decides to build
two clouds: one for development and one for production. Which product can move workloads from the
development cloud to the cloud?
A. vFabiic Suite
B. vCioud Connector
C. vCenter Server
D. vRealize Operations
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An organization is evaluating to a hybrid cloud infrastructure. They already manage an onsite vsphere
environment and want to better understand the benefits of migrating data to vcloud air.
What would be a compelling reason for the client to migrate to a hybrid cloud solution?
A. They will be able to use storage clusters and Storage Distributed Resource Scheduling.
B. They will be able to more easily optimize the provisioning and performance of their virtualized
workloads.
C. They will be able to place their mission-critical virtual machines under Fault Tolerance rotection.
D. vRealize Automation will allow them to leverage vSphere Distributed Switches.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An administrator for a regional service provider has a predominately mobile client base. Which statement
represents an availability challenge that this administrator might face?
A. The clientswant to work on business problems instead of worrying about always been”hands on” with
their virtual workloads.
B. The clients need connectivity and flexibility without being required to host their own internal VPN
services.
C. The clientshave workloads in your data center and want to migrate to hosting providers in different
geographical areas.
D. Theclients need the ability to quickly deploy preconfigured workloads on demand.
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
An administrator is examining a data center to validate that it is operating as efficiently as possible.Which
option represents an Efficiency challenge the administrator might face?
A. Needing to easily roll back changes to workloads during testing and development.
B. Wanting to provide multi-tenant access to cloud resources without compromising security.
C. Needing semi-isolated and autonomous environments for the application development teams.
D. Wanting to align IT costs with corporate models by classifying IT as an operating expense.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A manager wants to know why traditional usage metering tools are less effective in a private cloud
environment thanthey are in physical environments.What statement provides the best response?
A. Traditional monitoring tools won’t work in a cloud environment.
B. Traditional metering tools require agents to be installed, which don’t work in virtual machines.

C. Resource usage is based on the overall demand of all virtual machines instead of per server.
D. This is not true, traditional usage metering tools are still the best choice.
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A company has decided to move to a hybrid cloud environment.They are concerned that this may increase
management complexity by requiring multiple interfaces.Which product provides a single interface for all
virtual machines within a hybrid cloud environment?
A. vCenter Server
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCloud Connector
D. VMware NSX
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A company has a multi-tier application and needs a deployment solution that will take into account CPU
and memory requirements, while ensuring that the security of each workload can be protected using
dynamic firewalls.Which two products will meet the company’s needs? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Replication
B. vRealize Automation
C. vRealize Operations
D. VMware NSX
70-537 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes a Software-Defined Enterprise?
A. An architecture framework designed to fully automate all IT services in all data centers removing the
need for human interaction.
B. An enterprise response to mainstream disorganization of resources in the data center that delivers on
the promise of interconnected infrastructure and software- as a-service.
C. An architecture that uses intelligence automation and common management to provide transparent
governance of infrastructure and software-as a-service.
D. An architecture that uses virtualization to replace all physical components in the data center while
using localized management and compliance to deliver infrastructure and software-as-a-service.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which VMware product will help ensure the most appropriate operating system, amount of storage and
number of vCPUs are assigned when creating a vApp according to a given budget?
A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Business
D. vRealize Automation
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What method you should override to use Android menu system?
A. onCreateOptionsMenu()
B. onCreateMenu()
C. onMenuCreated()
D. onCreateContextMenu()
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
What Activity method you use to retrieve a reference to an Android view by using the id attribute of a
resource XML?
A. findViewByReference(int id);
B. findViewById(int id)
C. retrieveResourceById(int id)
D. findViewById(String id)
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is not an Android component (i.e. a point from which the system can enter your
application)?
A. Service
B. Activity
C. Layout
D. Content Provider
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
During an Activity life-cycle, what is the first callback method invoked by the system?
A. onStop()
B. onStart()
C. onCreate()
D. onRestore()
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which configuration file holds the permission to use the internet?
A. Layout file
B. Property file
C. Java source file
D. Manifest file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
What does the following line of code achieve?
Intent intent = new Intent(FirstActivity.this, SecondActivity.class );

A. Creates an hidden Intent
B. Creates an implicit Intent
C. Create an explicit Intent
D. Create an explicit Intent
70-537 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT a valid usage for Intents?
A. Activate and Activity
B. Activate a Service
C. Activate a Broadcast receiver
D. Activate a SQLite DB Connection.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is not a valid Android resource file name?
A. mylayout.xml
B. myLayout.xml
C. my_layout.xml
D. mylayout1.xml
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of these is not defined as a process state?
A. Non-visible
B. Visible
C. Foreground
D. Background
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the name of the folder that contains the R.java file?
A. src
B. res
C. bin
D. gen
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is a correct statement about an XML layout file?
A. A layout PNG image file
B. A file used to draw the content of an Activity
C. A file that contains all application permission information
D. A file that contains a single activity widget.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Updated: Jul 25, 2017
Q&As: 47

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QUESTION: 1 Which of the following management products ARE updated as part of Managing a
stage boundary?
1. Business Case
2. Benefits Review Plan
3. Configuration Item Records
4. Project Brief
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
70-473 pdf Answer: A


QUESTION: 2
Which of the following activities could trigger the production of an exception plan?
A. Review Stage status
B. Giving ad hoc direction
C. Escalating a project issue
D. Report stage end
Answer: B


QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued
Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project.
B. The justification for the project should remain vabd.
C. The justification for the project may change.
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped.
70-473 vce Answer: B


QUESTION: 4
Which of the following activities is NOT an action of preparing for planned
closure?
A. Update the project plan with actual
B. Update the Project Management Team
C. Request a product status account
D. Confirm project has delivered what is defined in Project Product Description
Answer: B


QUESTION: 5
Which principle is supported by the activity Evaluate the Project?
A. Continued Business Justification
B. Defined roles and responsibilities
C. Learn from experience
D. Manage by stages
70-473 dumps Answer: C


QUESTION: 6
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the photos could be used for other
promotional material for the company?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Lessons Log
C. Exception Report
D. End Project Report
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the staff photo sessions were
disruptive to the Engineering Department as they had been scheduled during
peak work times without consultation with the Engineering Manager?
A. Follow-on action recommendations
B. Lessons Report
C. Project closure notification
D. Risk Register
70-473 exam Answer: B


QUESTION: 8
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that if anybody has any remaining resource costs to be charged to the project, they
should ensure this is done by 10 November?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Follow-on action recommendations
D. Project closure notification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the project has been closed
prematurely and has not achieved the objectives defined in the Project Initiation
Documentation (PID)?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Exception Report
D. Project closure notification
70-473 pdf Answer: B


QUESTION: 10
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that without the calendar the company is going to experience
difficulties recovering its decline in orders, and alternative solutions are
required if the company is going to recover its position?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Exception Report
C. End Project Report
D. Risk Register

Answer: C


QUESTION: 11
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now.
Which product should register that the risk of a competitor producing a calendar
at the same time was identified at the beginning of the project but the assessment
of this risk appears to have been poor?
A. Issue Register
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Lessons Report
D. Risk Register
70-473 dumps Answer: C

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Exam 70-461: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-461 exam

  • Chapter 1 Foundations of Querying
  • Chapter 2 Getting Started with the SELECT Statement
  • Chapter 3 Filtering and Sorting Data
  • Chapter 4 Combining Sets
  • Chapter 5 Grouping and Windowing
  • Chapter 6 Querying Full-Text Data
  • Chapter 7 Querying and Managing XML Data
  • Chapter 8 Creating Tables and Enforcing Data Integrity
  • Chapter 9 Designing and Creating Views, Inline Functions, and Synonyms
  • Chapter 10 Inserting, Updating, and Deleting Data
  • Chapter 11 Other Data Modification Aspects
  • Chapter 12 Implementing Transactions, Error Handling, and Dynamic SQL
  • Chapter 13 Designing and Implementing T-SQL Routines
  • Chapter 14 Using Tools to Analyze Query Performance
  • Chapter 15 Implementing Indexes and Statistics
  • Chapter 16 Understanding Cursors, Sets, and Temporary Tables
  • Chapter 17 Understanding Further Optimization Aspects
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QUESTION 1
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application. The application
contains a table that has the following definition:

CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)

You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and
ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?

A. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD ItemsInStore – ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemslnWarehouse);

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
QUESTION 2
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.

You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

QUESTION 3
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.

Correct Answer: I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reference:

QUESTION 4
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerID.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed.

Results must include customers who have not placed any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
B. SELECT CustomerName, CrderDate FROM Customers JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers CROSS JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate FROM Customers LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

QUESTION 6
You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:  700-501 vce
Reference:

QUESTION 7
Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM ( SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION ALL SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders ) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM ( SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders ) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM DomesticSalesOrders UNION ALL SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount FROM InternationalSalesOrders

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

QUESTION 8
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

QUESTION 9
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore ( [Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL ) GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore ( [Id] hierarchyid, [Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL ) GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore ( [Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE, [Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL ) GO

Correct Answer: A Explanation
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QUESTION 10
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. You need to reduce fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH DROP EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REORGANIZE
C. ALTER INDEX ALL ON OrderDetail REBUILD
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD

Correct Answer: B Explanation
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Preparing for and taking exam 70-461 (Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012)

70-461 exam

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