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QUESTION 1
You have to recommend a solution to help the students solve their problem regarding the historical sources. The problem must be solved as quickly as possible. What should you recommend? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Modify the language settings on the students’ desktop or laptop computers.
B. Email the source text to a language teacher at the school.
C. Use an Internet-based translation tool.
D. Use a social networking site to connect with students in other countries and upload the text to the social networking site.
62-193 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You teach a class of 20 students. Your classroom contains six computers. You run an activity that is carried out mostly on paper. Before the end of the activity, the students will require access to the computers. Which lesson structure should provide the best learning experience for the students?
A. Create several different activities that require the computers at different stages during the lesson.
B. Execute the computer-based portion of the activity as a class demonstration.
C. Modify the tasks of the lesson so that only some of the students require access to the computers.
D. Have all of the students perform the same activity and instruct the students to take turns using the computers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the primary benefit of increasing the use of ICT resources during the history lessons?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. The students will have access to a greater range of learning resources.
B. The students will more easily and quickly submit their assignments.
C. The students will stay on task throughout the lessons.
D. The students will deliver assignments that are clearer and more presentable.
62-193 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You plan to use ICT to prepare an effective persuasive writing lesson. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Use the Internet to find a complete, ready-made lesson to use with the students.
B. Use the Internet to find teaching resources to discuss with the students.
C. Use spell check software to improve your lesson plan.
D. Scan sections of the class textbook to use as reference.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You plan to lead a class discussion about the persuasive writing examples that the students bring in and to display the examples to the entire class. Which two ICT resources should you use to achieve this task? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a flatbed scanner
B. a data projector
C. a monochrome laser printer
D. a digital camera
62-193 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
You want to identify the primary benefit of using ICT during the persuasive writing lesson. Which benefit should you identify? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. In today’s world, writing is mostly done on a computer.
B. ICT helps students develop word processing skills.
C. The computer lab is used regularly.
D. Word processing applications allow students to easily edit and modify text.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You want the students to collect information from organizations that they find on the Internet. Which instructions or advice should you provide to the students? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the information sent to the student’s home e-mail address.
B. Only request information from organizations that have a secure Web site.
C. Have the information sent to the school’s e-mail address.
D. Only request information from organizations that have a Web site that requires registration.
62-193 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
One of your students has poor hearing. You want to ensure that the student has the opportunity to interact with the farmer during the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. After the video-conference, have the other students explain the key points of the conference to the student.
B. Before the video-conference, have the student submit questions in writing.
C. Manipulate the seating arrangement.
D. Record the audio portion of the video-conference for further listening.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You want to address the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT) policy goals by using the school’s limited ICT resources. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Ask the students to use their computers at home.
B. Have the students work in collaborative groups.
C. Ask the students to use their mobile devices.
D. Have the more confident students use the computers while the other students observe them.
62-193 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your class just completed the video-conference with the farmer. You want to do a quick assessment to identify how many students understood the key points of the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the students use the student response system.
B. Have the students work in pairs to create a blog.
C. Have each student write an essay by using a word processing application.
D. Have each student design a presentation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You teach an economics lesson about the effects of using price discount strategies. During the class, you provide detailed sales statistics from a major national retailer. Some of the students question the effectiveness of price discount strategies. You want to demonstrate to the students that the strategies are cost-effective. What should you do?
A. Search the Internet for Web sites that contain more information about retail pricing strategies.
B. Enter sample sales figures into a spreadsheet to model the effects of using price discountstrategies.
C. Search the Internet for teaching resources on retail pricing strategies.
D. Email several retail management experts and ask them for examples of how they use price discountstrategies.
62-193 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You want to improve the students’ research skills by using ICT resources. The solution must help meet the school’s organizational goals. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Tell the students to search for information on the Internet.
B. Give the students a list of Internet links to sites about acid rain.
C. Give the students printed Web pages about acid rain.
D. Work with the students to create a list of search terms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You have used Information and Communication Technology (ICT) successfully in the classroom for several years. A new teacher at the school says that she has had little opportunity to use ICT in the classroom. She wants to make use of the computer lab in her teaching. What advice would you give her?
A. Ensure that the planned activities are easy for the students.
B. Ensure that the planned activities are fun for the students.
C. Ensure that the planned activities are suitable for the learning objectives.
D. Ensure that the students understand how ICT will be used to complete their activities.
62-193 pdf Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Your network consists of one Active directory domain. The functional level of the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company has three departments named Sales, Marketing, and Engineering. All users in the domain are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllUsers. You have three custom applications. You deploy all custom applications by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named AppInstall. The Sales department purchases a new application that is only licensed for use by the Sales department. You need to recommend a solution to simplify the distribution of the new application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The application must only be distributed to licensed users. ?The amount of administrative effort required to manage the users must remain unaffected. The three custom applications must be distributed to all existing and new users on the network.
What should you recommend?
A. Create a new child domain for each department and link the AppInstall GPO to each child domain. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales domain.
B. Create a new child OU for each department. Link the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing OU and the Engineering OU. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales OU.
C. Create a new group for each department and filter the AppInstall GPO to each group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
D. Create a new group for each department. Filter the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing group and the Engineering group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To ensure that the other applications are distributed to all existing and new users on the network, you need to create a new group for each department and filter the InstallApp GPO to each group. Filtering allows you to target only specific computers or users. You can create and modify multiple preference items within each GPO, and you can filter each preference item to target only specific computers or users. Finally to simplify the distribution of the licensed application to the users of
the sales department, you need to create and link a new GPO to the domain and filter the new GPO to the Sales group. You should not filter the InstallApp GPO to the Marketing group and the Development groups only because all the other applications beside the licensed
application need to be installed to the Sales department also.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2 and client computers that run Windows 7. All network routers support IPsec connections. Client computers and servers use IPsec to connect through network routers. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) installed and is configured as a certification authority (CA). Server2 runs Internet Information Services (IIS). You need to recommend a certificate solution for the network routers. The solution must meet the following requirements Use the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP).Enable the routers to automatically request certificates. What should you recommend implementing?
A. Certification authority Web enrollment services on Server2
B. Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2
C. Online Responder service on Server1
D. Subordinate CA on Server1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To recommend a certificate solution for the network routers that would enable the routers to automatically request certificates and that would use Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP), you need to implement Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2. The Network Device Enrollment Service allows routers and other network devices to obtain certificates based on the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP) from Cisco Systems Inc.
Reference: Windows Server Active Directory Certificate Services Step-by-Step Guide/ AD CS Technology Review

QUESTION 3
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. Your company uses a firewall to connect to the Internet. Inbound TCP/IP port 443 is allowed on the firewall. You have terminal servers on the internal network. You have one server on the internal network that has Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) deployed. All servers run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway. What should you recommend?
A. Change the firewall rules to permit traffic through port 3389 from the Internet.
B. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Web Access (TS Web Access) services role.
C. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker) services role.
D. Create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP).
70-647 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway, you need to create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). TS CAPs allow you to specify who can connect to a TS Gateway server. Users are granted access to a TS Gateway server if they meet the conditions specified in the TS CAP. You must also create a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). A TS RAP allows you to specify the internal network resources that users can connect to through TS Gateway. Until you create
both a TS CAP and a TS RAP, users cannot connect to internal network resources through this TS Gateway server. Reference: Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) / Why are TS CAPs important?

QUESTION 4
Your network consists of one Active Directory forest that contains one root domain and 22 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run the DNS Server service and host Active Directory-integrated zones. Administrators report that it takes more than one hour to restart the DNS servers. You need to reduce the time it takes to restart the DNS servers. What should you do?
A. Upgrade all domain controllers to Windows Server 2008.
B. Upgrade all domain controllers in the root domain to Windows Server 2008, and then set the functional level for the root domain to Windows Server 2008.
C. Deploy new secondary zones on additional servers in each child domain.
D. Change the Active Directory-integrated DNS zones to standard primary zones.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Sometime DNS server can take an hour or more in companies that have extremely large zones and the DNS data of the company is stored in AD DS. The result is that the DNS server is effectively unavailable to service client requests for the entire time that it takes to load AD DS- based zones. The problem can be solved by upgrading the domain controllers to Windows Server 2008. This is because a DNS server running Windows Server 2008 now loads zone data from AD DS in the background while it restarts so that it can respond to requests for data from other zones.
Reference: DNS Server Role/ Background zone loading

QUESTION 5
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You have file servers that run Windows Server 2008. Client computers run Windows Vista and UNIX-based operating systems. All users have both Active Directory user accounts and UNIX realm user accounts. Both environments follow identical user naming conventions. You need to provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Users must only log on once to access all resources. ?No additional client software must be installed on UNIX-based client computers. What should you do?
A. Create a realm trust so that the Active Directory domain trusts the UNIX realm.
B. Install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
C. Enable the subsystem for UNIX-based applications on the file servers. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the client computers.
D. Enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers.
70-647 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers, you need to enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping and also enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers. User Name Mapping (UNM) bridges the gap between the different user identification used in Windows and UNIX worlds. When UNM is used it in conjunction with Server for NFS, UNM authenticates the incoming NFS access requests. With Client for NFS, it determines the effective UID and GID to be sent with the NFS requests to UNIX NFS servers.

QUESTION 6
Your Company has a main office and 10 branch offices. The network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are located in the main office. Each branch office contains one member server. Branch office administrators in each branch office are assigned the necessary rights to administer only their member servers.
You deploy one read-only domain controller (RODC) in each branch office.
You need to recommend a security solution for the branch office Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Branch office administrators must be granted rights on their local domain controller only. ?Branch office administrators must be able to administer the domain controller in their branch office. This includes changing device drivers and running Windows updates. What should you recommend?
A. Add each branch office administrator to the Administrators group of the domain.
B. Add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller.
C. Grant each branch office administrator Full Control permission on their domain controller computer object in Active Directory.
D. Move each branch office domain controller computer object to a new organizational unit (OU). Grant each local administrator Full Control permission on the
new OU.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To allow branch office administrators to manage their local domain controller only, change device drivers, and run Windows updates, you need to add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller. The users of Local administrator group have administrative rights on their local domain controllers to manage several machines to perform all necessary administrative tasks but they have restricted rights as compared to domain administrators.
Reference: Adding a group to the local administrators group

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-647 dumps
The Bridge all site links option is enabled.
You need to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in only the hub sites. The solution must ensure that domain controllers can replicate if a server fails in one of the hub sites.
What should you do?
A. Lower the site link costs between the spoke sites and the hub sites.
B. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Create site link bridges that include the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites.
C. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Install a writable domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in each hub site.
D. Enable the global catalog server attribute for all domain controllers in the hub sites. Upgrade all domain controllers in the spoke sites to Windows Server 2008.
70-647 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, all site links are bridged so that all the sites that are not connected by an explicit site link can communicate directly, through a chain of intermediary site links and sites. However, if you want to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites do not replicate with other spoke sites when a server fails in one of the hub sites, you need to disable the Bridge all site links option. You need to then create site link bridges to create the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in the hub sites.
Reference: Configuring site link bridges

QUESTION 8
Your company has 5,000 users. The network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a collaboration solution for the users to
meet the following requirements:
Support tracking of document version history.
Enable shared access to documents created in Microsoft Office. Enable shared access to documents created by using Web pages.
The solution must be achieved without requiring any additional costs. What should you recommend?
A. Install servers that run the Web Server role.
B. Install servers that run the Application Server role.
C. Install servers that run Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
D. Install servers that run Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) 2007.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To achieve the desired results without requiring any additional cost, you need to use Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
Reference: Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 and the Mobile Workplace

QUESTION 9
Your Company has 10 offices. Each office has 10 domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008. The network consists of one Active directory domain. Each office has a local administrator. You use domain-level Group Policy objects (GPO). Office administrators have the necessary permissions to create and link domain-level Group Policy objects. You create custom Administrative Template (.admx) files locally on a computer that runs Windows Vista. You need to implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to the .admx files from
each office. The solution must ensure that .admx files remain identical across the company. What should you do?
A. In the domain, create a central store. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
B. In each office, create a central store on a file server. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
C. Create a GPO and link it to the domain. Add the .admx files to the GPO.
D. Create a GPO and link it to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU). Add the custom .admx files to the GPO.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to these files from each office and to ensure that the .admx files remain identical across the company, you need to create a central store in the domain and copy the custom .admx files to the central store. The central store for ADMX files allows all local administrators to edit domain-based GPOs to access the same set of ADMX files. When a central store is created, the Group Policy tools will use the ADMX files only in the central store, ignoring the locally stored versions. You need to copy the custom .admx files to the central store and not add them because there need to be only one ADMX file and not multiple versions of the same file in the central store.

QUESTION 10
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The network contains one Active Directory site. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You create a second Active Directory site and plan to install a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in the new site. You also plan to deploy a new firewall to connect the two sites. You need to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites. Which traffic should you permit through the firewall?
A. LDAP
B. NetBIOS
C. RPC
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
You should permit RPC traffic through the firewall to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites because the Active Directory relies on remote
procedure call (RPC) for replication between domain controllers. You can open the firewall wide to permit RPC’s native dynamic behavior.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-45)

QUESTION 6
What relationship is represented in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. manifestation of an artifact
B. node with deployed artifacts
C. node deployed on an artifact
D. node with annotated property values
E. node with deployment specifications
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What determines how many values will move across an object flow edge at one time?
A. effect
B. ordering
C. upper bound
D. selection
E. weight

F. transformation
Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What can be used when the source of an object flow has values of type Customer, and the target needs the name of the customer?
A. upper bound
B. selection
C. effect
D. ordering
E. weight
F. transformation
Answer: F

QUESTION 9
What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no exception parameters declared?
A. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
B. appended to an exception log
C. handled by a default handler
D. sent to the “ExceptionManager” object
E. ignored
70-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. p is a behavior port.
B. p is a hidden port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
B. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
C. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
70-410 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a procedural language.
B. OCL is a query language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a programming language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 13
What is true about a parameterized package? (Choose two)
A. a package where all classes in the package are parameterized
B. a package with different variants, where the parameters tell how the package may vary
C. names of classes within a parameterized package can be parameters of the package
D. a package from which new packages can be defined by binding parameters
E. a package that is instantiable, and where the actual parameters are provided when creating package instances
F. a package with parameters that are names of other imported packages and a binding tells which actual packages are imported
70-410 vce Answer: C,D

QUESTION 14
What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. can represent all system structures
B. is a kind of package
C. can represent only software systems

D. cannot contain another model
E. is a kind of component
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 15
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. failure mode use cases
E. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
Answer: C,D

QUESTION 16
What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
B. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
C. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
D. send a request to a port
Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is NOT true of a transition in a protocol state machine?
A. may have no associated operation
B. may have a precondition
C. may have multiple associated operation
D. may have a postcondition
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component’s namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. contents of the component’s namespace are promoted to its superclass
C. objects continue to exist

D. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
Answer: A

QUESTION 19
If an activity is executed three times in parallel, how many executions exist? (Choose two)
A. two
B. three
C. one
D. none
E. any number
70-410 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION 20
What is true of a protocol state machine?
A. may have a behavioral feature context
B. must be associated with exactly one classifier
C. may be associated with any number of classifiers
D. cannot be associated with a classifier
Answer: B

QUESTION 21
By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose three)
A. import
B. dependency
C. power types
D. inheritance
E. ownership
F. association end subsets
70-410 vce Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 22
What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
D. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
E. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
70-410 exam Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which classifiers may NOT realize an InformationItem?
A. Component
B. Interface
C. ObjectNode
D. Class
E. Signal
F. InformationItem
Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The preconditions of behavioral features of an interface can be specified in what way?
A. the set of its features
B. the actions of its protocol state machine
C. the parameters of its protocol state machine
D. comments attached to the corresponding features
E. one or more guard conditions of a protocol state machine
Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Duplicates are NOT allowed in which OCL types?
A. Collection
B. Bag
C. Set
D. Sequence
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What does a local precondition mean?
A. An activity begins executing when the precondition becomes true. B.
An action begins executing when the precondition becomes true.
C. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an activity begins executing.
D. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an action begins executing.
E. An activity may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
F. An action may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
Answer: D

QUESTION 27
If a data store node has three values and one moves across an outgoing edge, how many are left?
A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
C. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
D. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
E. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
Answer: A

QUESTION 29
To which layers in the 4-layer metamodel hierarchy for the UML metamodel (as depicted in the exhibit) do M1 and M2 correspond?
Exhibit:

A. M2 = user model; M1 = UML metamodel
B. M2 = user model; M1 = runtime instances
C. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = user model
D. M2 = MOF meta-metamodel; M1 = UML metamodel
E. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = MOF meta-metamodel
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. connector
B. transition
C. association
D. dependency
70-410 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 31
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. association
B. dependency
C. connector
D. transition

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a typed language.
B. OCL is a programming language.
C. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
D. OCL is a query language.
E. OCL is a procedural language.
F. OCL is a specification language.
Answer: A,D,F

QUESTION 33
What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
D. a particular aspect of a collaboration
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
B. failure mode use cases
C. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component repository
Answer: A,B

QUESTION 35
In the exhibit, at which levels are the DeploymentSpecifications?
Exhibit:

A. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = instance level
B. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = spec level
C. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = spec level
D. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = instance level
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 36
If an action has a behavior with three sets of parameters, how many of the sets can provide output for a single execution of the behavior?
A. any number
B. two
C. one
D. three
Answer: C

QUESTION 37
The exhibit depicts the UML superstructure packages for behavioral models. What is the correct identity for packages Foo and Bar?
Exhibit:

A. Foo = Activities; Bar = Collaborations
B. Foo = CommonBehaviors; Bar = Activities
C. Foo = CoreBehavior; Bar = Communications
D. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Sequences
E. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Activities
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 38
What boundary do lightning bolt arrows cross to have an effect?
A. structured node
B. interruptible region
C. activity
D. exception region
E. expansion region
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 39
In the exhibit, what is the minimum number of incoming arrows that must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
Exhibit:

A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: C,E

QUESTION 41
An information flow may NOT occur between which elements?
A. classes
B. instance specifications
C. use cases
D. packages
E. associations
70-410 dumps Answer: E

QUESTION 42
Which stereotype is NOT expected to see decorating an ExecutionEnvironment instance?
A. <<database subsystem>>
B. <<stream file>>
C. <<workflow engine>>
D. <<CRM System>>

E. <<OS>>
Answer: B

QUESTION 43
What is an abstract type in OCL?
A. Bag
B. Sequence
C. Integer
D. Set
E. Collection
70-410 pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 44
Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<source>>
C. <<executable>>
D. <<script>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

QUESTION 45
What characteristic of an object node can prevent it from receiving a value?
A. selection
B. effect
C. ordering
D. upper bound
E. transformation
F. weight
70-410 vce Answer: D

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. Subsequent to deploying a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, you are instructed to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to the server. You want to achieve this goal from the command prompt. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of the dism.exe command.
B. You should consider making use of the dsquery.exe command.

C. You should consider making use of the dsadd.exe command.
D. You should consider making use of the dsrm.exe command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Hyper-V hosts contains several virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Network Load Balancing feature on the virtual machines. You need to configure the virtual machines to support Network Load Balancing (NLB). Which virtual machine settings should you configure?
A. Port mirroring
B. DHCP guard
C. Router guard
D. MAC address
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. The forest contains five domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps

You need to configure DC5 as a global catalog server. Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You have received instructions to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on a server, named L2P-SR07. You want to achieve this remotely from a server, named L2P-SR06. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR07.
B. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR06.
C. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR07.
D. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR06.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
B. New-StoragePool
C. Diskpart
D. Share and Storage Management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are in the process of installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, named L2P-SR13. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to a installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Server Graphical Shell is installed, but not enabled.
B. Server roles can be configured locally via the command prompt using Windows PowerShell.
C. Server roles can be configured locally via Server Manager.
D. You are able to access the Microsoft Management Console locally.

E. The Desktop Experience is not available.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 25
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Correct Answer: C
70-410 exam 
QUESTION 26
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
70-410 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
The chief financial officer (CFO) releases new guidelines that specify that only users from finance are allowed to run FinanceApp1.
Users in the Marketing OU report that they can run FinanceApp1.
  You need to ensure that only users in the Finance OU can run FinanceApp1. What should you do?
A. In the AllComputers GPO, create a new AppLocker executable rule.
B. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a new Windows Installer rule.
C. In the AllComputers GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new hash rule.
D. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new path rule.
070-685 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Chapter 10 p 467- 468
Understanding the difference between SRP and AppLocker You might want to deploy application control policies onto Windows operating systems earlier than Windows Server2008R2 or Windows7. You can use AppLocker policies only on the supported editions of Windows Server2008R2 and Windows7, but you can use SRP on supported editions of Windows beginning with Windows Server2003 and WindowsXP.
QUESTION 2
Users in the ERPApp1 pilot project report intermittent application issues. You need to consolidate all application events for the users in a central location. What should you do?
A. Configure event subscriptions.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
070-685 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

A. Configure event subscriptions. Event Viewer enables you to view events on a single remote computer. However, troubleshooting an issue might require you to examine a set of events stored in multiple logs on multiple computers. Windows 7 includes the ability to collect copies of events from multiple remote computers and store them locally. To specify which events to collect, you create an
event subscription. Among other details, the subscription specifies exactly which events will be collected and in which log they will be stored locally. Once a subscription is active and events are being collected, you can view and manipulate these forwarded events as you would any other locally stored events.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
You can create a filter that includes events from multiple event logs that satisfy specified criteria. You can then name and save that filter as a custom view. To apply the filter associated with a saved custom view, you navigate to the custom view in the console tree and click its name.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
You can create a custom Data Collector Set containing performance counters and configure alert activities based on the performance counters exceeding or dropping below limits you define. After creating the Data Collector Set, you must configure the actions the system will take when the alert criteria are met. Membership in the local Performance Log Users or Administrators group, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete these procedures.

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QUESTION 3
The help desk reports that users in the Marketing OU print draft documents, e-mails, and other miscellaneous documents on Printer2. You need to recommend a solution so that marketing users print documents to Printer1 by default.  What should you do?
A. Enable printer pooling.
B. Configure Group Policy Preferences.
C. Modify the priorities of the shared printers.
D. Modify the permissions of the shared printers.
070-685 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Action: This type of preference item provides a choice of four actions: Create, Replace, Update, and Delete. The behavior of the preference item varies with the action selected and whether the printer connection already exists. Set this printer as the default printer – Select this check box to make the shared printer connection the default Windows printer for the current user. Only if a local printer is not present – Select this check box to bypass changing the default printer if there is a local printer configured on the computer. This setting is unavailable until you select the Set this printer as the default printer check box. Note: A local printer is any printer that is not connected to a shared network printer. This includes physical printers connected to parallel, serial, and USB ports, TCP/IP printers, and virtual printers installed through software. To create a new Shared Printer preference item Open the Group Policy Management Console. Right-click the Group Policy object (GPO) that should contain the new preference item, and then click Edit. In the console tree under User Configuration, expand the Preferences folder, and then expand the Control Panel Settings folder.
Right-click the Printers node, point to New, and select Shared Printer. In the New Shared Printer Properties dialog box, select an Action for Group Policy to perform. Enter shared printer settings for Group Policy to configure or remove. Click the Common tab, configure any options, and then type your comments in the Description box. Click OK. The new preference item appears in the details pane.
QUESTION 4
The Office1 network link is brought offline for emergency maintenance. Users in Office2 and Office3 report that they cannot connect to the wireless network. You need to recommend changes to ensure that users in all offices can connect to the wireless network if a WAN link fails. What should you recommend?
A. that redundant DHCP scopes be created
B. that additional RADIUS servers be deployed
C. that universal group caching be implemented
D. that additional default gateways be configured
070-685 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1) You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data. You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site. You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed. What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
70-463 exam 
Answer: A
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night. The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large. If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value. The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50. Many values are incorrectly matched. You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance. What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS). You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model. Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically. You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)  What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
70-463 dumps 
Answer: B,F
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package named DataFeed interacts with an external vendor data feed. The package is executed several times a day, either as part of other packages’ control flow or by itself. The external data feed is unreliable because network failures and slow response times are frequent. The package is currently deployed
on the file system. To analyze the reliability of the external data feed, you must collect execution data. Every time the DataFeed package is executed, the following information must be logged:
Start Time
End Time
Execution Result
Execution Duration
You need to design a logging solution that meets the requirements by using the least amount of administrative and development effort. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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QUESTION NO: 5
Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she’d like to optimize her ad for conversion.
D. Google won’t automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
70-463 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network. 
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the Content Network with ‘Relevant pages across the entire network’ in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement. Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
70-463 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
You’re reviewing a campaign you’ve created for your company with your manager. The manager is curious about the budget setting on the campaign’s tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It’s the maximum amount you’ll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It’s the amount you’re comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 40
If loop exists and STP is not enabled, the switch will not operate normally
A. True
B. False
70-761 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.

70-761 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements is not the advantage of STP?
A. STP can manage the redundant links. When the working link is down, network connectivity can be
restored.
B. STP can prevent loops
C. STP can prevent broadcast storm
D. STP can save network bandwidth
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following standards defines STP?
A. 802.1J
B. 802.1X
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1P
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
STP elects ( )
A. One bridge as the Root Bridge and another one as the Backup Root Bridge
B. One bridge as the Root Bridge
C. Two bridges as the Root Bridge
D. One Designated Bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
STP distributes configuration message by sending BPDU packet to each other.
A. True
B. False
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In STP, BPDU packet is carried by ( ).
A. IP packet
B. TCP packet
C. Ethernet frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
In a switching network that has been enabled with STP protocol, the priorities of all the switches are the
same. The MAC address of switch1 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, MAC address of switch2 is 00- e0-fc-00-00-10,
MAC address of switch3 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and MAC address of switch4 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which of
the switches will be elected as the Root Bridge?
A. Switch1

B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
70-761 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A switching network has been enabled with STP protocol. To provide fast access speed to the file server
for most of the users, the switch that is directly connected with file server is configured as the root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU will
time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails, Configuration
BPDU cannot be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following statements about STP is not true?
A. STP can manage redundant links.
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
According to OSI reference model, Layer 2 LAN switch operates at ( ).
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. IP layer
D. Application layer
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
According to the STP protocol, a certain field in the BPDU identifies the root switch. That is, if the BPDU
sent by a switch contains this field, this switch is considered as the root switch. What is this field?
A. Root Identifier
B. Root Path Cost
C. Bridge Identifier
D. Port Identifier
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which are the two parts in the port identifier of the uplink interface on a non-root switch?
A. 1-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
B. 1-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
C. 2-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
D. 2-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
In the network diagram, which switch will be selected as the root switch?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which statements about the PVID on the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. When receiving a packet without the VLAN tag, the interface adds the VLAN tag to the packet and sets
the VID in the tag to the default VLAN ID.
B. When receiving a packet with a VLAN tag, the interface compares the VLAN ID in the tag with the
default VLAN ID. If they are the same, the interface forwards the packets; otherwise, the interface
discards the packets.
C. When the interface sends a packet with a VLAN tag that contains the default VLAN ID, the system
removes the VLAN tag of the packet, and then forwards the packet.
D. None of the above.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 57
Which statement about the hybrid interface is true?
A. A hybrid interface can only be connected to network device.
B. A hybrid interface can only be connected to host.
C. A hybrid interface can be connected to host or network device.
D. A hybrid interface cannot be configured with VLAN ID.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement about MUX VLAN is false?
A. Principal VLAN
B. Subordinate VLAN
C. Subordinate group VLAN
D. Guest VLAN
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three Fibre Channel topologies are used in SAN implementations? (choose three.)
A. arbitrated loop
B. physical
C. switched fabric
D. point-to-point
E. logical
70-774 exam Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a Host Bus Adaptor (HBA)?
A. A compact optical device that connects to switches and transmits and receives data.
B. A device that connects multiple computers together to form a network segment.
C. A non-volatile data storage device.
D. A Fibre Channel interface that connects a computer to a storage network.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
What are two benefits of using snapshots as part of an in-system replication solution? (Choose
two.)
A. Snapshots provide storage-efficient copies of the data.
B. Snapshots create a physical clone of the data.
C. Volumes are restored faster from snapshot copies.
D. Snapshots provide point-in-time data copies.
70-774 dumps Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 4
What are two characteristics of array-based asynchronous remote replication? (Choose two.)
A. It supports server performance under load.
B. It is installed and run on a server.
C. It can be implemented over a WAN.
D. It does not ensure data consistency.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 5
When using IP to transfer data over a network, which protocol re-combines IP packets into the
correct order to re-create the message sent from the source?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. UDP
D. TCP
70-774 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
An online bank wants to improve their environmental credentials by reducing power consumption
and heat output in their data center, but without affecting service levels. Which three strategies
would they use to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Add more data storage.
B. Consolidate existing storage.
C. Reduce data center hotspots.
D. Implement virtualization strategies.
E. Migrate customer data to off-line storage.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 7
Which type of tiered data requires a storage infrastructure that provides reasonable performance
and availability and must recover within 8 hours of a failure?
A. mission-critical data
B. business-critical data
C. nearline data
D. offline data
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which two features help reduce power consumption on a storage system? (Choose two.)
A. on-demand cache partitioning
B. ability to turn off HDDs when not accessed
C. adaptive dual power battery backup
D. dynamic fan speed adjustment
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 9
What is an advantage of cache partitioning?
A. dynamic reallocation of cache resource by performance criteria
B. optimized storage system performance
C. improved security against unauthorized administrative access
D. automated data copy to a secondary partition
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
A large healthcare company wants to implement an object store in their application. Which three
are considered to be an object? (Choose three.)
A. a mirror copy of a data volume
B. an MRI Image file
C. a lab report in pdf format
D. a file services structure of active data
E. an ultrasound video file
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 11
Which two elements are critical to configuring high availability access to storage over a SAN?
(Choose two.)
A. data path management
B. automated path failover
C. diagnosis of performance bottlenecks
D. prioritizing of an application’s server port access
70-774 dumps Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 12
What are the two ways a storage system implements virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. in-band
B. cross-band
C. cascaded
D. out-of-band
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 13
What are two advantages of implementing an Ethernet network in an office environment? (Choose
two.)
A. resource sharing
B. VSAN capabilities
C. centralized management
D. MAC address zoning
70-774 pdf Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
What are two benefits of using performance reporting software? (Choose two).
A. It provides disk subsystem utilization data.
B. It moves elements between storage partitions.
C. It provides workload data for volumes and ports.
D. It migrates data away from storage hot-spots.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which customer type will benefit from a content management platform solution?
A. Customers with a large number of departmental offices in multiple locations.
B. Customers with large numbers of file servers or NAS systems considering an archiving or a
tiering strategy.
C. Customers wanting to improve application availability by reducing downtime caused by
backups.
D. Customers wanting to deploy a structured database for their customer data.
70-774 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
Which two statements are correct about array-based data replication? (Choose two.)
A. Write operations to the storage are performed faster.
B. It can run independent of host OS, file system and database.
C. There is only a single current copy of each volume.
D. Data copy volumes can be used offline for development and testing.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
An architect firm wants to simplify how they store and share their designs. The files are high
resolution and will be viewed by many people in the company at their workstations. Each architect
has their own operating system preferences, but the files should be available to all. Which platform
would meet this requirement?
A. a storage system with an iSCSI option installed
B. a storage system with a NAS front-end
C. a storage system with SAS drives and a DAS front-end
D. a storage system that implements a Fibre Channel SAN
70-774 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
A customer has a large number of high performance database servers with DAS. They are
concerned about isolated data and would also like to re-assign unused storage to avoid additional
expenditure and to minimize unexpected loss of access to data. Which solution satisfies the
requirements?
A. Attach all servers directly to their storage.
B. Attach all servers and storage to redundant SAN fabrics.
C. Implement a DAS RAID 5 solution for the database servers.
D. Add a NAS option to the storage and deliver data using file services.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1
A consultant has been hired to architect a hybrid cloud solution for a client. The consultant decides to build
two clouds: one for development and one for production. Which product can move workloads from the
development cloud to the cloud?
A. vFabiic Suite
B. vCioud Connector
C. vCenter Server
D. vRealize Operations
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An organization is evaluating to a hybrid cloud infrastructure. They already manage an onsite vsphere
environment and want to better understand the benefits of migrating data to vcloud air.
What would be a compelling reason for the client to migrate to a hybrid cloud solution?
A. They will be able to use storage clusters and Storage Distributed Resource Scheduling.
B. They will be able to more easily optimize the provisioning and performance of their virtualized
workloads.
C. They will be able to place their mission-critical virtual machines under Fault Tolerance rotection.
D. vRealize Automation will allow them to leverage vSphere Distributed Switches.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An administrator for a regional service provider has a predominately mobile client base. Which statement
represents an availability challenge that this administrator might face?
A. The clientswant to work on business problems instead of worrying about always been”hands on” with
their virtual workloads.
B. The clients need connectivity and flexibility without being required to host their own internal VPN
services.
C. The clientshave workloads in your data center and want to migrate to hosting providers in different
geographical areas.
D. Theclients need the ability to quickly deploy preconfigured workloads on demand.
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
An administrator is examining a data center to validate that it is operating as efficiently as possible.Which
option represents an Efficiency challenge the administrator might face?
A. Needing to easily roll back changes to workloads during testing and development.
B. Wanting to provide multi-tenant access to cloud resources without compromising security.
C. Needing semi-isolated and autonomous environments for the application development teams.
D. Wanting to align IT costs with corporate models by classifying IT as an operating expense.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A manager wants to know why traditional usage metering tools are less effective in a private cloud
environment thanthey are in physical environments.What statement provides the best response?
A. Traditional monitoring tools won’t work in a cloud environment.
B. Traditional metering tools require agents to be installed, which don’t work in virtual machines.

C. Resource usage is based on the overall demand of all virtual machines instead of per server.
D. This is not true, traditional usage metering tools are still the best choice.
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A company has decided to move to a hybrid cloud environment.They are concerned that this may increase
management complexity by requiring multiple interfaces.Which product provides a single interface for all
virtual machines within a hybrid cloud environment?
A. vCenter Server
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCloud Connector
D. VMware NSX
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A company has a multi-tier application and needs a deployment solution that will take into account CPU
and memory requirements, while ensuring that the security of each workload can be protected using
dynamic firewalls.Which two products will meet the company’s needs? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Replication
B. vRealize Automation
C. vRealize Operations
D. VMware NSX
70-537 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes a Software-Defined Enterprise?
A. An architecture framework designed to fully automate all IT services in all data centers removing the
need for human interaction.
B. An enterprise response to mainstream disorganization of resources in the data center that delivers on
the promise of interconnected infrastructure and software- as a-service.
C. An architecture that uses intelligence automation and common management to provide transparent
governance of infrastructure and software-as a-service.
D. An architecture that uses virtualization to replace all physical components in the data center while
using localized management and compliance to deliver infrastructure and software-as-a-service.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which VMware product will help ensure the most appropriate operating system, amount of storage and
number of vCPUs are assigned when creating a vApp according to a given budget?
A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Business
D. vRealize Automation
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What method you should override to use Android menu system?
A. onCreateOptionsMenu()
B. onCreateMenu()
C. onMenuCreated()
D. onCreateContextMenu()
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
What Activity method you use to retrieve a reference to an Android view by using the id attribute of a
resource XML?
A. findViewByReference(int id);
B. findViewById(int id)
C. retrieveResourceById(int id)
D. findViewById(String id)
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is not an Android component (i.e. a point from which the system can enter your
application)?
A. Service
B. Activity
C. Layout
D. Content Provider
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
During an Activity life-cycle, what is the first callback method invoked by the system?
A. onStop()
B. onStart()
C. onCreate()
D. onRestore()
70-537 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which configuration file holds the permission to use the internet?
A. Layout file
B. Property file
C. Java source file
D. Manifest file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
What does the following line of code achieve?
Intent intent = new Intent(FirstActivity.this, SecondActivity.class );

A. Creates an hidden Intent
B. Creates an implicit Intent
C. Create an explicit Intent
D. Create an explicit Intent
70-537 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT a valid usage for Intents?
A. Activate and Activity
B. Activate a Service
C. Activate a Broadcast receiver
D. Activate a SQLite DB Connection.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is not a valid Android resource file name?
A. mylayout.xml
B. myLayout.xml
C. my_layout.xml
D. mylayout1.xml
70-537 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of these is not defined as a process state?
A. Non-visible
B. Visible
C. Foreground
D. Background
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the name of the folder that contains the R.java file?
A. src
B. res
C. bin
D. gen
70-537 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is a correct statement about an XML layout file?
A. A layout PNG image file
B. A file used to draw the content of an Activity
C. A file that contains all application permission information
D. A file that contains a single activity widget.
Correct Answer: B

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[2017-August-02 From Google Drive] Download Free Microsoft Exam 70-473 PDF Dumps Azure Certification Training with Latest 70-473 Study Guide Exam Questions Free Youtube

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Exam Code: 70-473
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions
Updated: Jul 25, 2017
Q&As: 47

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70-473

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-473 PDF Exam Q&As:

QUESTION: 1 Which of the following management products ARE updated as part of Managing a
stage boundary?
1. Business Case
2. Benefits Review Plan
3. Configuration Item Records
4. Project Brief
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
70-473 pdf Answer: A


QUESTION: 2
Which of the following activities could trigger the production of an exception plan?
A. Review Stage status
B. Giving ad hoc direction
C. Escalating a project issue
D. Report stage end
Answer: B


QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued
Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project.
B. The justification for the project should remain vabd.
C. The justification for the project may change.
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped.
70-473 vce Answer: B


QUESTION: 4
Which of the following activities is NOT an action of preparing for planned
closure?
A. Update the project plan with actual
B. Update the Project Management Team
C. Request a product status account
D. Confirm project has delivered what is defined in Project Product Description
Answer: B


QUESTION: 5
Which principle is supported by the activity Evaluate the Project?
A. Continued Business Justification
B. Defined roles and responsibilities
C. Learn from experience
D. Manage by stages
70-473 dumps Answer: C


QUESTION: 6
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the photos could be used for other
promotional material for the company?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Lessons Log
C. Exception Report
D. End Project Report
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the staff photo sessions were
disruptive to the Engineering Department as they had been scheduled during
peak work times without consultation with the Engineering Manager?
A. Follow-on action recommendations
B. Lessons Report
C. Project closure notification
D. Risk Register
70-473 exam Answer: B


QUESTION: 8
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that if anybody has any remaining resource costs to be charged to the project, they
should ensure this is done by 10 November?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Follow-on action recommendations
D. Project closure notification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition
has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing
Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the
calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing
calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the
impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the
Project Board is to close the project prematurely. There are a number of key facts
relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be
closed now. Which product should show that the project has been closed
prematurely and has not achieved the objectives defined in the Project Initiation
Documentation (PID)?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Project Report
C. Exception Report
D. Project closure notification
70-473 pdf Answer: B


QUESTION: 10
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now. Which product should show
that without the calendar the company is going to experience
difficulties recovering its decline in orders, and alternative solutions are
required if the company is going to recover its position?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. Exception Report
C. End Project Report
D. Risk Register

Answer: C


QUESTION: 11
It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design
competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO
and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12
photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two
competitors are issuing calendars to MNO’s customers by the middle of
November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the
Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project
prematurely.
There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to
be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now.
Which product should register that the risk of a competitor producing a calendar
at the same time was identified at the beginning of the project but the assessment
of this risk appears to have been poor?
A. Issue Register
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Lessons Report
D. Risk Register
70-473 dumps Answer: C

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