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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Role-based
Exam Code: MD-100
Exam Name: Windows 10
Updated: Jan 25, 2021
Q&As: 211

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QUESTION 1
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
On Computer1, you turn on File History.
You need to protect a folder named D:\Folder1 by using File History.
What should you do?
A. From File Explorer, modify the Security settings of D:\Folder1
B. From File Explorer, add D:\Folder1 to the Documents library
C. From the Settings app, configure the Recovery settings
D. From File History in Control Panel, configure the Select drive settings
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 1,000 computers that run Windows 10.
You discover that when users are on their lock screen, they see a different background image every day, along with tips
for using different features in Windows 10.
You need to disable the tips and the daily background image for all the Windows 10 computers.
Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Turn off the Windows Welcome Experience
B. Turn off Windows Spotlight on Settings
C. Do not suggest third-party content in Windows spotlight
D. Turn off all Windows spotlight features
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/configuration/windows-spotlight

QUESTION 3
Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform.
In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops.
Some laptops frequently generate stop errors.
You need to identify the cause of the issue.
What should you use?
A. Reliability Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. System Configuration
D. Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: A
References: https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446

QUESTION 4
You have a workgroup computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the user accounts shown in
the following table.

md-100 exam questions-q4

User3, User4, and Administrator sign in and sign out on Computer1. User1 and User2 have never signed in to
Computer1.
You are troubleshooting policy issues on Computer1. You sign in to Computer1 as Administrator.
You add the Resultant Set of Policy (RsoP) snap-in to an MMC console.
Which users will be able to sign in on Computer1?
A. User1, User3, and User4 only
B. Administrator only
C. User1, User2, User3, User4, and Administrator
D. User3, User4, and Administrator only
Correct Answer: D
The Interactive logon: Number of previous logons to cache (in case domain controller is not available) policy setting
determines whether a user can log on to a Windows domain by using cached account information. Logon information for
domain accounts can be cached locally so that, if a domain controller cannot be contacted on subsequent logons, a
user can still log on. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/interactivelogon-number-of-previous-logons-to-cache-in-case-domain-controller-is-not-available 

QUESTION 5
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and is joined to an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com. A user named Admin1 signs in to Computer1 and runs the whoami command as shown in the following
exhibit.

md-100 exam questions-q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You manage devices that run Windows 10.
Ten sales users will travel to a location that has limited bandwidth that is expensive. The sales users will be at the
location for three weeks.
You need to prevent all Windows updates from downloading for the duration of the trip. The solution must not prevent
access to email and the Internet.
Solution: From Network and Internet in the Settings app, you set the network connections as metered connections.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.makeuseof.com/tag/5-ways-temporarily-turn-off-windows-update-windows-10/

QUESTION 7
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 contains a folder named Data on drive C.
The Advanced Security Settings for the Data folder are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

md-100 exam questions-q7

User1 is a member of the Users group.
Administrators are assigned Full control NTFS permissions to C:\Data.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q7-2

User1 cannot write files when connected to \\Computer1\Data because the Users group only has Read and Execute
NTFS permission to the C:\Data folder and there are no explicit NTFS permissions for User1.
User1 cannot write files locally because the Users group only has Read and Execute NTFS permission to the C:\Data
folder and there are no explicit NTFS permissions for User1.
Administrators cannot change the NTFS permissions of files and folders when connected to \\Computer1\Data because
they only have Change share permission. The would need Full Control share permission. They could do it locally
because they have Full Control NTFS permission.

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is in a workgroup.
Computer1 contains the local users shown in the following table.

md-100 exam questions-q8

 The Users group has Full control permissions to Folder1, Folder2, and Folder3.
User1 encrypts two files named File1.docx and File2.docx in Folder1 by using EFS.
Which users can move each file? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer:

md-100 exam questions-q8-3

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contain the users shown in the
following table.

md-100 exam questions-q9

 User1 joins Computer1 to Azure AD by using [email protected]
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a laptop named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
When in range, Computer1 connects automatically to a Wi-Fi network named Wireless1.
You need to prevent Computer1 from automatically connecting to Wireless1.
Solution: From the properties of the Wi-Fi adapter, you disable Link-Layer Topology Discovery Responder.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You are troubleshooting connectivity issues on Computer1.
You need to view the remote addresses to which Computer1 has active TCP connections.
Which tool should you use?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Resource Monitor
D. Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
A user has a computer that runs Windows 10.
When the user connects the computer to the corporate network, the user cannot access the internal corporate servers.
The user can access servers on the Internet.
You run the ipconfig command and receive the following output.

md-100 exam questions-q12

You send a ping request and successfully ping the default gateway, the DNS servers, and the DHCP server. Which
configuration on the computer causes the issue?
A. the DNS servers
B. the IPv4 address
C. the subnet mask
D. the default gateway address
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the users shown in the
following table.

md-100 exam questions-q13

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and is in a workgroup.
A local standard user on Computer1 named User1 joins the computer to the domain and uses the credentials of User2
when prompted.
You need to ensure that you can rename Computer1 as Computer33.
Solution: You use the credentials of User2 on Computer1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Renaming a domain-joined computer will also rename the computer account in the domain. To do this, you need
domain administrator privileges.
User2 is a domain user, not an administrator. Use User3\\’s credentials instead.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directory-security-groups

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Microsoft Power Platform PL-900 exam questions

QUESTION 1
A distribution company has multiple warehouses.
Tax rates charged on sales orders need to be calculated based on locality and region.
You need to recommend a cost-effective solution that can be implemented quickly.
What should you recommend?
A. Check AppSource for a tax add-on.
B. Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance for tax table changes.
C. Implement the Common Data Model.
D. Run a Power BI report.
E. Write scripts and code tax updates.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/indirect-taxes-overview

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A company needs to create a series of mobile applications to empower their field engineers to accomplish several tasks
with varying degrees of complexity.
Match each option to its answer.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate app type from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each app
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pl-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q2-2

Box 1: canvas Both model-driven and canvas apps allow you to easily build business apps. They both share access to
the Common Data Service providing standard and custom entities. Canvas apps start with your user experience,
crafting a highly tailored interface with the power of a blank canvas and connecting it to 200 data sources. Canvas apps
can be built for web, mobile, and tablet applications. Model-driven apps start with your data model – building up from the
shape of your core business data and processes in the Common Data Service to model forms, views, and other
components. Model-driven apps automatically generate great UI that is responsive across devices. Box 2: model-driven
Reference: https://powerapps.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/introducing-model-driven-apps/

QUESTION 3
A toy company creates a text classification model in AI Builder to monitor customer feedback for specific key words.
When negative feedback is received for a toy, the company wants to proactively perform engineering reviews for the toy
and schedule additional training sessions for workers who produce the toy.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a canvas app.
B. Implement the Virtual Agent.
C. Build a Microsoft Flow.
D. Use the Common Data Model.
Correct Answer: AC
A (not D): AI Builder comes with:
A ready-to-use business card reader available in canvas as well as in model-driven apps.
Business card reader (Canvas)
Business card reader (Model-driven)
Additional canvas components to leverage your AI Builder form processing or object detection models canvas apps.
C: Use the results from your AI model across Power Platform to create end-to-end solutions that meet your business
needs, even if you have no coding skills. For example, create a flow that automates document processing in Power
Automate, or an app created with PowerApps that predicts whether a supplier will be out of compliance.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/use-in-powerapps-overview 

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
A company plans to use Power Apps to connect to a series of custom services. There are no connectors available for
the custom services.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q4-2

Box 1: Yes
Only if you would like to share your connector with all users of Logic Apps, Microsoft Flow, and PowerApps, you can
submit your connector for Microsoft certification. Microsoft will review your connector.
Box 2: Yes
Connectors created in Microsoft Flow are available in PowerApps. Likewise, connectors created in PowerApps are
available in Microsoft Flow.
Box 3: No
If you would like to share your connector with all users of Logic Apps, Microsoft Flow, and PowerApps, you can submit
your connector for Microsoft certification. Microsoft will review your connector.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/connectors/custom-connectors/

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A company uses Power Apps.
You need to perform administrative tasks for the company.
Which admin centers should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate admin centers to the correct requirements. Each
admin center may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q5

Box 1: Azure Active Directory
Create the company users in the Azure Active Directory.
Box 2: Power Apps admin center
In the Power Apps Admin center, manage environments that you\\’ve created and those for which you have been added
to the Environment Admin or System Administrator role. From the admin center, you can perform these administrative
actions:
Create environments.
Rename environments.
Add or remove a user or group from either the Environment Admin or Environment Maker role.
Etc.
Incorrect Answers:
Use the Dynamics 365 admin center to review the status of your apps and solutions, apply updates, and manage your
Dynamics 365 instances, solutions, and apps.
The Power BI admin portal enables you to manage a Power BI tenant for your organization. The portal includes items
such as usage metrics, access to the Microsoft 365 admin center, and settings.
Note: You use the Microsoft 365 admin center to create user accounts for every user who needs access to model-driven
apps in Dynamics 365, such as Dynamics 365 Sales and Customer Service.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/environments-administration
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/marketing/dynamics-365-admin-center
https://powerapps.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/introducing-admin-center-for-powerapps/

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company uses a third party application and an approval process via email. At the end of the month, the IT department
enters the data into Microsoft Excel to create pivot charts.
The Excel pivot charts must use the same data source as Dynamics 365 Field Service to generate charts and reports.
You need to recommend a solution.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q6-2

Box 1: Dynamics 365 Workflow notifications
You can configure the system to send email messages to users when workflow-related events occur.
Note:
1. Go to Navigation pane > Modules > System administration > Users > Users.
2. In the list, find and select the desired record.
3. On the Action pane, click User options.
4. Click the Workflow tab. Make sure that the Notifications section is expanded. In the Notifications section, you can
specify how you want the user to be notified about workflow-related events.
Box 2: Dynamics 365 Field Service
Supply Chain Management enables synchronization of business processes between Dynamics 365 Supply Chain
Management and Dynamics 365 Field Service. The integration scenarios are configured by using extensible Data
integrator templates and Common Data Service to enable the synchronization of business processes. Standard
templates
can be used to create custom integration projects, where additional standard and custom fields and entities can be
mapped to adjust the integration and meet specific business needs.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/organization-administration/tasks/usersreceive-workflow-related-email-messages

QUESTION 7
You create a business rule on contact entity to enforce the requirement that users must enter either a telephone number, fax number, or an email when creating a new record.
The company decides to remove fax number from the condition.
You need to update the business rule.
What are two ways of achieving the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Save a copy of the rule and change the condition. Deactivate and delete the original rule.
B. Deactivate the business rule and change the condition.
C. Take a snapshot of the business rule and change the condition.
D. Change the condition and activate the change.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/working-with-rules

QUESTION 8
You need to use Microsoft Flow to perform data-management tasks when users interact with the sales opportunities in
Dynamics 365.
Which three types of triggers can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. record requested
B. record deletion
C. record creation
D. record updated
E. record selected
Correct Answer: BCD
Triggers like When a record is created, When a record is updated, and When a record is deleted initiate your flow within
a few minutes of the event occurring. In rare cases, your flow can take up to 2 hours to trigger.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/connection-dynamics365

QUESTION 9
You create a Power BI dashboard that displays data from Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement.
You need to share the Power BI dashboard with coworkers.What are three possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Power BI workspace and grant coworkers permissions.
B. Publish the dashboard as an app to your coworkers.
C. Export the data into Common Data Service for others to manipulate in Power BI.
D. Export the data to Microsoft Excel for coworkers to import and view in Power BI.
E. Embed reports in your company\\’s internal web portal.
Correct Answer: ABE
A: Basic Sharing for Dashboards and Reports through a workspace is the most common way of sharing the Power BI
content. Basic Sharing is very simple and easy to use method. You can simply click on the Share button in the
dashboard or report, and then share it with other users.

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q9

B: Apps are great sharing method for multiple environment, and best way of sharing for users in production
environment.
Power BI App is the solution for multiple environment approach. With Power BI App, your development environment
(workspace), and user environment (App) are isolated from each other.
Note: If you are using SharePoint online as a portal for document management and some other reasons already, then
consider using Embed in SharePoint Online feature of Power BI reports. This method is secure and you can share the
report only with Power BI users you want.
E: Sometimes, you don\\’t need a secure way of sharing, you may search for an easy and free way of sharing, and your
content is not confidential or sensitive. Publish to web is your friend in such situation. This is the only free way of sharing
in Power BI, but be aware that this method is not secure.
Publish to web method, gives you an embed code, which you can use in any web pages to embed the Power BI report
in it
Reference:
https://radacad.com/power-bi-sharing-methods-comparison-all-in-one-review

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
A company plans to use Microsoft Flow to automate tasks.
Match each flow type to its function. To answer, drag the appropriate flow type from the column on the left to its
description on the right. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q10

Box 1: automated
Automated flows start with an event or trigger, such as an email being received. These also support a multitude of
actions in the 200+ Flow connectors.
Box 2: business process
The business process flow that creates stages or screens that enforce a certain sequence of steps. It collects data from
users for each step in the stage and can kick off automated workflows.
Box 3: scheduled
Scheduled flows run regular reports that are sent out to a team and summarize everything that\\’s happened in the past
week. This includes everything from simple daily scheduling to more complex scheduling like “every 3rd Monday.”
Box 4: instant
An instant flow is triggered when you click a button inside of the Flow mobile app, SharePoint, Dynamics, PowerApps,
or Excel that passes context directly into your flow.
Note: There are four different Flow types that you can choose from when starting out. You can create a scheduled flow,
automated flow, instant flow, or a business process flow.
Reference:
https://www.avepoint.com/blog/office-365/office-365-automation/

QUESTION 11
A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management.
When a sales order is created for one of the customers that a specific user manages, a Microsoft Outlook task must be
created to remind the user to perform any follow up activities that are required.
You need to implement the functionality to create Outlook tasks.
Which two features should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. AI Builder
B. Power Apps
C. Business Events
D. Microsoft Flow
E. Common Data Service
Correct Answer: CD
Business events in Microsoft Power Automate
Business events can be consumed in Microsoft Power Automate via the application connector. The connector has a
trigger that is named when a business event occurs. This trigger can be used to subscribe to any of the business events
that are available in the target instance of the application.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/business-events/business-events-flow

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A business is evaluating AI Builder.
Which actions can you perform?
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q12

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/create-text-classification-model https://radacad.com/objectdetector-app-with-ai-builder-and-power-apps

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You need to explain the major components of the Common Data Model (CDM) and their functions.
Match each term to its definition.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each term
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q13

Box 1: Microsoft Power Platform
Power Platform combines the robust power of PowerApps, PowerBI, and Microsoft Flow into one powerful business
application platform – providing quick and easy app building and data insights. Each component of the Microsoft Power
Platform is built on the Common Data Service for Apps. Each component is dynamic by itself, but brilliant and
masterful when combined.
The Microsoft Power platform brings all your data together into a common data model.
Box 2: Entities
An entity is a set of records used to store data, similar to how a table stores data within a database.
Reference:
https://community.dynamics.com/365/b/encloud9dynamicss365crm/posts/an-introduction-to-the-microsoft-powerplatform
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/common-data-service/data-platform-intro

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QUESTION 1
The chief financial officer (CFO) releases new guidelines that specify that only users from finance are allowed to run FinanceApp1.
Users in the Marketing OU report that they can run FinanceApp1.
  You need to ensure that only users in the Finance OU can run FinanceApp1. What should you do?
A. In the AllComputers GPO, create a new AppLocker executable rule.
B. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a new Windows Installer rule.
C. In the AllComputers GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new hash rule.
D. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new path rule.
070-685 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Chapter 10 p 467- 468
Understanding the difference between SRP and AppLocker You might want to deploy application control policies onto Windows operating systems earlier than Windows Server2008R2 or Windows7. You can use AppLocker policies only on the supported editions of Windows Server2008R2 and Windows7, but you can use SRP on supported editions of Windows beginning with Windows Server2003 and WindowsXP.
QUESTION 2
Users in the ERPApp1 pilot project report intermittent application issues. You need to consolidate all application events for the users in a central location. What should you do?
A. Configure event subscriptions.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
070-685 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

A. Configure event subscriptions. Event Viewer enables you to view events on a single remote computer. However, troubleshooting an issue might require you to examine a set of events stored in multiple logs on multiple computers. Windows 7 includes the ability to collect copies of events from multiple remote computers and store them locally. To specify which events to collect, you create an
event subscription. Among other details, the subscription specifies exactly which events will be collected and in which log they will be stored locally. Once a subscription is active and events are being collected, you can view and manipulate these forwarded events as you would any other locally stored events.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
You can create a filter that includes events from multiple event logs that satisfy specified criteria. You can then name and save that filter as a custom view. To apply the filter associated with a saved custom view, you navigate to the custom view in the console tree and click its name.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
You can create a custom Data Collector Set containing performance counters and configure alert activities based on the performance counters exceeding or dropping below limits you define. After creating the Data Collector Set, you must configure the actions the system will take when the alert criteria are met. Membership in the local Performance Log Users or Administrators group, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete these procedures.

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QUESTION 3
The help desk reports that users in the Marketing OU print draft documents, e-mails, and other miscellaneous documents on Printer2. You need to recommend a solution so that marketing users print documents to Printer1 by default.  What should you do?
A. Enable printer pooling.
B. Configure Group Policy Preferences.
C. Modify the priorities of the shared printers.
D. Modify the permissions of the shared printers.
070-685 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Action: This type of preference item provides a choice of four actions: Create, Replace, Update, and Delete. The behavior of the preference item varies with the action selected and whether the printer connection already exists. Set this printer as the default printer – Select this check box to make the shared printer connection the default Windows printer for the current user. Only if a local printer is not present – Select this check box to bypass changing the default printer if there is a local printer configured on the computer. This setting is unavailable until you select the Set this printer as the default printer check box. Note: A local printer is any printer that is not connected to a shared network printer. This includes physical printers connected to parallel, serial, and USB ports, TCP/IP printers, and virtual printers installed through software. To create a new Shared Printer preference item Open the Group Policy Management Console. Right-click the Group Policy object (GPO) that should contain the new preference item, and then click Edit. In the console tree under User Configuration, expand the Preferences folder, and then expand the Control Panel Settings folder.
Right-click the Printers node, point to New, and select Shared Printer. In the New Shared Printer Properties dialog box, select an Action for Group Policy to perform. Enter shared printer settings for Group Policy to configure or remove. Click the Common tab, configure any options, and then type your comments in the Description box. Click OK. The new preference item appears in the details pane.
QUESTION 4
The Office1 network link is brought offline for emergency maintenance. Users in Office2 and Office3 report that they cannot connect to the wireless network. You need to recommend changes to ensure that users in all offices can connect to the wireless network if a WAN link fails. What should you recommend?
A. that redundant DHCP scopes be created
B. that additional RADIUS servers be deployed
C. that universal group caching be implemented
D. that additional default gateways be configured
070-685 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Lab 1.1: Network Workstation Client Configuration

5

Lab 1.1: Network Workstation Client Configuration
In order for two computers to communicate in a TCP/IPv4 network (IPv6 is discussed later, in Lab 1.3), both computers must have a unique Internet Protocol (IP) address. An IP address has four octets. The IP address is divided into a network address and a host address. The subnet mask identifies which portion of the IP address is the network address and which portion is the host address. On a local area network (LAN), each computer must have the same network address and a different host address. To communicate outside the LAN, using different network IP addresses, the use of a default gateway is required. To connect to a TCP/IP network, normally four items are configured: the IP address (this is both the network portion and the host portion), the subnet mask, the IP address for a Domain Name System (DNS) server, and the IP address for the gateway machine. To communicate only within a LAN, you need only the IP address and subnet mask. To communicate with other networks, you need the default gateway. If you want to be able to connect to different sites and networks using their domain names, then you need to have the address of a DNS server as well. When communicating between machines on different networks, packets are sent via the default gateway on the way into and out of the LAN. The routing is done using (Layer 3) IP addresses. If the computer is on the same network, then the IP address gets resolved to a (Layer 2) Media Access Control (MAC) address to communicate with the computer. MAC addresses are hard-coded onto the network card by the company that made the card. The ability to retrieve and change your IP configuration is an important skill. In this lab, you will use the ipconfig command in Windows and the ifconfig command in Linux to view the configuration information. You will then use the Local Area Connection Properties window to change the IP address in Windows and use ifconfig to change the IP address in Linux. Computers use both MAC and IP addresses to communicate with one another across networks. In this lab, two computers will “talk” to each other via ping messages. You will then modify the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table of one computer to demonstrate the relationship between the IP and MAC addresses for a machine. The ping (Packet Internet Groper) program is a basic utility that is used for testing the connectivity between two computers. This message name was derived from the sound that sonar on a submarine makes, and is used in a similar way. A “signal” or request is sent out to probe for the existence of the target along a fixed “distance.” The distance between two computers can be measured using time to live (TTL). Ping operates using Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to test for connectivity; so in cases where ICMP is restricted, the ping utility may not be useful. Ping is usually implemented using ICMP echo messages, although other alternatives exist. When you use the ping command in this lab, you will see that although you are using the IP address as the target of the ping, it is actually the MAC address that is used to communicate with that computer. IP addresses are used to transfer data from one network to another, whereas MAC addresses are used to send information from one device to another on the same network. It is ARP that resolves IP addresses to their associated MAC addresses. ARP is a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) tool that is used to modify the ARP cache. The ARP cache contains recently resolved MAC addresses of IP hosts on the network.

6

Chapter 1: Workstation Network Configuration and Connectivity

As you progress through the labs, you will see how a computer obtains both MAC addresses and IP addresses in order to communicate. The question you should be considering is “how does the computer know that the information it is getting is correct?”

Learning Objectives
After completing this lab, you will be able to

Retrieve IP address configuration information via the command line. List the switches that can be added to the ipconfig (Windows) or ifconfig (Linux) command to increase its functionality. Use the Windows graphical user interface (GUI) to configure a network card to use a given IP address. Determine your machine’s MAC address. Determine your machine’s assigned network resources, including its DNS address and gateway address. Use the ifconfig (Linux) command to configure a network card with a given IP address. Understand how to test network connectivity between two computers. List the options that can be added to the ping command to increase its functionality. Use the arp command to view and manage the ARP cache on a computer.

S 10 minutes
Lab 1.1w: Windows Client Configuration
Materials and Setup
You will need the following:

??

Windows XP Professional Windows 2003 Server

Lab Steps at a Glance
Step 1: Start the Windows 2003 Server and Windows XP Professional PCs. Log on only to the Windows XP machine. Step 2: View the network card configuration using the config command.

Lab 1.1w: Windows Client Configuration

7

Step 3:

Change the IP address of the Windows XP machine.

Step 4: Verify the new IP address. Use the ipconfig command to verify that the IP address has changed. Step 5: Step 6: Step 7: Step 8: Change the IP address of the Windows XP machine back to the original address. Ping the Windows 2003 Server machine from the Windows XP PC. View and modify the ARP table. Log off from the Windows XP PC.

Lab Steps
Step 1: Start the Windows 2003 Server and Windows XP Professional PCs. Log on only to the Windows XP machine. To log on to the Windows XP PC:
1. 2.

At the Login screen, click the Admin icon. In the password text box, type the password password and press enter.

Step 2: View the network card configuration using the ipconfig command. On the Windows XP PC, you will view the network card configuration using ipconfig. This utility allows administrators to view and modify network card settings.
1. 2.

To open the command prompt, choose Start | Run, type cmd in the Open field, and press enter. At the command prompt, type ipconfig /? and press enter.
a.

Observe the options available for ipconfig.

b. Which options do you think would be most useful for an administrator? c. 3.

Which option would you use to obtain an IP configuration from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server?

Type ipconfig and press enter, as shown in Figure 1-1.
a.

What is your IP address?

b. What is your subnet mask? 4.

Type ipconfig /all and press enter.
a.

Observe the new information.

b. What is the MAC address of your computer? c. 5.

What is your DNS server address?

Type exit and press enter.

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Question No 1:

Your network contains four Network Policy Server (NPS) servers named Server1, Server2, Servers, and Server4.Server1 is configured as a RADIUS proxy that forwards connection requests to a remote RADIUS server group named Group1. You need to ensure that Server2 and Server3 receive connection requests. Server4 must only receive connection requests if both Server2 and Server3 are unavailable. How should you configure Group1?

A. Change the Weight of Server4 to 10
B. Change the Weight of Server2 and Server3 to 10
C. Change the Priority of Server2 and Server3 to 10
D. Change the Priority of Server4 to 10

Answer : D

Question No 2:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the following role services installed:
DirectAccess and VPN (RRAS)
Network Policy Server
Remote users have client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
You need to ensure that only the client computers that run Windows 7 or Windows 8 can establish VPN
connections to Server1.
What should you configure on Server1?

A. A condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
B. A constraint of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
C. a condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
D. A vendor-specific RADIUS attribute of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy

Answer: A

Question No 3:

You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server
server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed.
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?

A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information

Answer: B

Question No 4:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service
installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?

A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.

Answer: D

Question No 5:

You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server
server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed.
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?

A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information

Answer: B

Question No 6:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service
installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?

A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.

Answer: D

Question No 7:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy Server server role and the
Remote Access server role installed. The domain contains a server named Server2 that is configured as a
RADIUS server.
Server1 provides VPN access to external users.
You need to ensure that all of the VPN connections to Server1 are logged to the RADIUS server on
Server2.
What should you run?

A. Add-Remote Access Radius -ServerNameServer1 -Accounting On Off Msg Enabled -Shared Secret
“Secret” -Purpose Accounting
B. Set-Remote Access Accounting -Accounting On Off Msg Enabled -Accounting On Off Msg Enabled
C. Add-Remote AccessRadius -Server Name Server2 -Accounting On Off Msg Enabled -Shared Secret
“Secret” -Purpose Accounting
D. Set-Remote Access Accounting -Enable Accounting Type Inbox -Accounting On Off Msg Enabled

Answer: C

Question No 8:

Your network contains four Network Policy Server (NPS) servers named Server1, Server2, Servers, and
Server4.
Server1 is configured as a RADIUS proxy that forwards connection requests to a remote RADIUS server
the group named Group1.
You need to ensure that Server2 and Server3 receive connection requests. Server4 must only receive
connection requests if both Server2 and Server3 are unavailable.
How should you configure Group1?

A. Change the Weight of Server4 to 10.
B. Change the Weight of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
C. Change the Priority of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
D. Change the Priority of Server4 to 10.

Answer: D

Question No 9:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
A network administrator creates a Group Policy central store.
After the central store is created, you discover that when you create new Group Policy objects (GPOs), the
GPOs do not contain any Administrative Templates.
You need to ensure that the Administrative Templates appear in new GPOs.
What should you do?

A. Add your user account to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
B. Configure all domain controllers as global catalog servers.
C. Copy files from %Windir%\Policydefimtions to the central store.
D. Modify the Delegation settings of the new GPOs.

Answer: C

Question No 10:

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a Data Collector Set
(DCS) named DCS1.
You need to configure DCS1 to log data to D:\logs.
What should you do?

A. Right-click DCS1 and click Properties.
B. Right-click DCS1 and click Export list. . .
C. Right-click DCS1 and click Data Manager. . .
D. Right-click DCS1 and click Save template. . .

Answer: A

Question No 11:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The Active Directory Recycle bin is
enabled for contoso.com.
A support technician accidentally deletes a user account named User1. You need to restore the User1
account.
Which tool should you use?

A. Ldp
B. Essential
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Ntdsutil

Answer: C

Question No 12:

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the
following table.

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Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled.
You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an Active Directory group
named Group1 an hour ago.
You need to restore the membership of Group1.
What should you do?

A. Recover the items by using Active Directory Recycle Bin.
B. Modify the is Recycled attribute of Group1.
C. Perform tombstone reanimation.
D. Perform an authoritative restore.

Answer: A

Question No 13:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a read-only
domain controller (RODC) named RODC1.
You create a global group named RODC_Admins.
You need to provide the members of RODC_Admins with the ability to manage the hardware and the
software on R0DC1. The solution must not provide RODC_Admins with the ability to manage Active
Directory objects.
What should you do?

A. From Active Directory Site and Services, configure the Security settings of the RODC1 server object.
B. From Windows Power-Shell, run the Set-ADAccount Control cmdlet.
C. From a command prompt, run the dogmatism local roles command.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the Member Of settings of the RODC1 account.

Answer: C

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 Microsoft 70-410 PDF 

QQ截图20170301115359

Microsoft 70-410  PDF Install and configure servers (15–20%)

  • Install servers
    • Plan for a server installation; plan for server roles; plan for a server upgrade; install Server Core; optimize resource utilization by using Features on Demand; migrate roles from previous versions of Windows Server
      • Plan for a Server Installation 
    •  Plan using Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
      • Plan for Server Roles
    •  Familiarize yourself with the available Server Roles
      • Plan for a Server Upgrade
      • Server Core Overview
      • Install Server Core
    • from the initial install choose Windows Server 2012 Server Core or if you originally installed the full GUI from PS run cmd Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra, Server-Gui-Shell -restart  
      • Migrate Roles from Previous Versions of Windows Server
      • Features on Demand
    • reduce footprint by removing payload of unused items. PS cmd example Uninstall-WindowsFeature –name gpmc –vhd “vhdpathfile” -remove
      • Install, Use and Remove Windows Server Migration Tools
      • Demo: Installing Server Migration Tools
    • install feature (not role), then from cmd line cd to ServerMigrationTools and use SmigDeploy (with appropriate cmds) to migrate the feature from previous version of Windows Server Install servers

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Microsoft certification 70-410 pdf best exam questions and answers(#16-26):

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware
failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What
should you do?

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A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the
forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.

What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is
named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by
using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU)
named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012
R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a
member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers.
What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

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A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features.

D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control   Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install Windows
Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two
network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space
Correct Answe

QUESTION 25
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 26
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
Correct Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 62-193 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-13)
QUESTION 1
You have to recommend a solution to help the students solve their problem regarding the historical sources. The problem must be solved as quickly as possible. What should you recommend? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Modify the language settings on the students’ desktop or laptop computers.
B. Email the source text to a language teacher at the school.
C. Use an Internet-based translation tool.
D. Use a social networking site to connect with students in other countries and upload the text to the social networking site.
62-193 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You teach a class of 20 students. Your classroom contains six computers. You run an activity that is carried out mostly on paper. Before the end of the activity, the students will require access to the computers. Which lesson structure should provide the best learning experience for the students?
A. Create several different activities that require the computers at different stages during the lesson.
B. Execute the computer-based portion of the activity as a class demonstration.
C. Modify the tasks of the lesson so that only some of the students require access to the computers.
D. Have all of the students perform the same activity and instruct the students to take turns using the computers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the primary benefit of increasing the use of ICT resources during the history lessons?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. The students will have access to a greater range of learning resources.
B. The students will more easily and quickly submit their assignments.
C. The students will stay on task throughout the lessons.
D. The students will deliver assignments that are clearer and more presentable.
62-193 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You plan to use ICT to prepare an effective persuasive writing lesson. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Use the Internet to find a complete, ready-made lesson to use with the students.
B. Use the Internet to find teaching resources to discuss with the students.
C. Use spell check software to improve your lesson plan.
D. Scan sections of the class textbook to use as reference.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You plan to lead a class discussion about the persuasive writing examples that the students bring in and to display the examples to the entire class. Which two ICT resources should you use to achieve this task? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a flatbed scanner
B. a data projector
C. a monochrome laser printer
D. a digital camera
62-193 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
You want to identify the primary benefit of using ICT during the persuasive writing lesson. Which benefit should you identify? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. In today’s world, writing is mostly done on a computer.
B. ICT helps students develop word processing skills.
C. The computer lab is used regularly.
D. Word processing applications allow students to easily edit and modify text.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You want the students to collect information from organizations that they find on the Internet. Which instructions or advice should you provide to the students? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the information sent to the student’s home e-mail address.
B. Only request information from organizations that have a secure Web site.
C. Have the information sent to the school’s e-mail address.
D. Only request information from organizations that have a Web site that requires registration.
62-193 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
One of your students has poor hearing. You want to ensure that the student has the opportunity to interact with the farmer during the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. After the video-conference, have the other students explain the key points of the conference to the student.
B. Before the video-conference, have the student submit questions in writing.
C. Manipulate the seating arrangement.
D. Record the audio portion of the video-conference for further listening.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You want to address the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT) policy goals by using the school’s limited ICT resources. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Ask the students to use their computers at home.
B. Have the students work in collaborative groups.
C. Ask the students to use their mobile devices.
D. Have the more confident students use the computers while the other students observe them.
62-193 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your class just completed the video-conference with the farmer. You want to do a quick assessment to identify how many students understood the key points of the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the students use the student response system.
B. Have the students work in pairs to create a blog.
C. Have each student write an essay by using a word processing application.
D. Have each student design a presentation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You teach an economics lesson about the effects of using price discount strategies. During the class, you provide detailed sales statistics from a major national retailer. Some of the students question the effectiveness of price discount strategies. You want to demonstrate to the students that the strategies are cost-effective. What should you do?
A. Search the Internet for Web sites that contain more information about retail pricing strategies.
B. Enter sample sales figures into a spreadsheet to model the effects of using price discountstrategies.
C. Search the Internet for teaching resources on retail pricing strategies.
D. Email several retail management experts and ask them for examples of how they use price discountstrategies.
62-193 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You want to improve the students’ research skills by using ICT resources. The solution must help meet the school’s organizational goals. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Tell the students to search for information on the Internet.
B. Give the students a list of Internet links to sites about acid rain.
C. Give the students printed Web pages about acid rain.
D. Work with the students to create a list of search terms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You have used Information and Communication Technology (ICT) successfully in the classroom for several years. A new teacher at the school says that she has had little opportunity to use ICT in the classroom. She wants to make use of the computer lab in her teaching. What advice would you give her?
A. Ensure that the planned activities are easy for the students.
B. Ensure that the planned activities are fun for the students.
C. Ensure that the planned activities are suitable for the learning objectives.
D. Ensure that the students understand how ICT will be used to complete their activities.
62-193 pdf Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Your network consists of one Active directory domain. The functional level of the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company has three departments named Sales, Marketing, and Engineering. All users in the domain are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllUsers. You have three custom applications. You deploy all custom applications by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named AppInstall. The Sales department purchases a new application that is only licensed for use by the Sales department. You need to recommend a solution to simplify the distribution of the new application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The application must only be distributed to licensed users. ?The amount of administrative effort required to manage the users must remain unaffected. The three custom applications must be distributed to all existing and new users on the network.
What should you recommend?
A. Create a new child domain for each department and link the AppInstall GPO to each child domain. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales domain.
B. Create a new child OU for each department. Link the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing OU and the Engineering OU. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales OU.
C. Create a new group for each department and filter the AppInstall GPO to each group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
D. Create a new group for each department. Filter the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing group and the Engineering group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To ensure that the other applications are distributed to all existing and new users on the network, you need to create a new group for each department and filter the InstallApp GPO to each group. Filtering allows you to target only specific computers or users. You can create and modify multiple preference items within each GPO, and you can filter each preference item to target only specific computers or users. Finally to simplify the distribution of the licensed application to the users of
the sales department, you need to create and link a new GPO to the domain and filter the new GPO to the Sales group. You should not filter the InstallApp GPO to the Marketing group and the Development groups only because all the other applications beside the licensed
application need to be installed to the Sales department also.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2 and client computers that run Windows 7. All network routers support IPsec connections. Client computers and servers use IPsec to connect through network routers. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) installed and is configured as a certification authority (CA). Server2 runs Internet Information Services (IIS). You need to recommend a certificate solution for the network routers. The solution must meet the following requirements Use the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP).Enable the routers to automatically request certificates. What should you recommend implementing?
A. Certification authority Web enrollment services on Server2
B. Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2
C. Online Responder service on Server1
D. Subordinate CA on Server1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To recommend a certificate solution for the network routers that would enable the routers to automatically request certificates and that would use Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP), you need to implement Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2. The Network Device Enrollment Service allows routers and other network devices to obtain certificates based on the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP) from Cisco Systems Inc.
Reference: Windows Server Active Directory Certificate Services Step-by-Step Guide/ AD CS Technology Review

QUESTION 3
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. Your company uses a firewall to connect to the Internet. Inbound TCP/IP port 443 is allowed on the firewall. You have terminal servers on the internal network. You have one server on the internal network that has Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) deployed. All servers run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway. What should you recommend?
A. Change the firewall rules to permit traffic through port 3389 from the Internet.
B. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Web Access (TS Web Access) services role.
C. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker) services role.
D. Create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP).
70-647 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway, you need to create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). TS CAPs allow you to specify who can connect to a TS Gateway server. Users are granted access to a TS Gateway server if they meet the conditions specified in the TS CAP. You must also create a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). A TS RAP allows you to specify the internal network resources that users can connect to through TS Gateway. Until you create
both a TS CAP and a TS RAP, users cannot connect to internal network resources through this TS Gateway server. Reference: Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) / Why are TS CAPs important?

QUESTION 4
Your network consists of one Active Directory forest that contains one root domain and 22 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run the DNS Server service and host Active Directory-integrated zones. Administrators report that it takes more than one hour to restart the DNS servers. You need to reduce the time it takes to restart the DNS servers. What should you do?
A. Upgrade all domain controllers to Windows Server 2008.
B. Upgrade all domain controllers in the root domain to Windows Server 2008, and then set the functional level for the root domain to Windows Server 2008.
C. Deploy new secondary zones on additional servers in each child domain.
D. Change the Active Directory-integrated DNS zones to standard primary zones.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Sometime DNS server can take an hour or more in companies that have extremely large zones and the DNS data of the company is stored in AD DS. The result is that the DNS server is effectively unavailable to service client requests for the entire time that it takes to load AD DS- based zones. The problem can be solved by upgrading the domain controllers to Windows Server 2008. This is because a DNS server running Windows Server 2008 now loads zone data from AD DS in the background while it restarts so that it can respond to requests for data from other zones.
Reference: DNS Server Role/ Background zone loading

QUESTION 5
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You have file servers that run Windows Server 2008. Client computers run Windows Vista and UNIX-based operating systems. All users have both Active Directory user accounts and UNIX realm user accounts. Both environments follow identical user naming conventions. You need to provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Users must only log on once to access all resources. ?No additional client software must be installed on UNIX-based client computers. What should you do?
A. Create a realm trust so that the Active Directory domain trusts the UNIX realm.
B. Install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
C. Enable the subsystem for UNIX-based applications on the file servers. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the client computers.
D. Enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers.
70-647 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers, you need to enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping and also enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers. User Name Mapping (UNM) bridges the gap between the different user identification used in Windows and UNIX worlds. When UNM is used it in conjunction with Server for NFS, UNM authenticates the incoming NFS access requests. With Client for NFS, it determines the effective UID and GID to be sent with the NFS requests to UNIX NFS servers.

QUESTION 6
Your Company has a main office and 10 branch offices. The network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are located in the main office. Each branch office contains one member server. Branch office administrators in each branch office are assigned the necessary rights to administer only their member servers.
You deploy one read-only domain controller (RODC) in each branch office.
You need to recommend a security solution for the branch office Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Branch office administrators must be granted rights on their local domain controller only. ?Branch office administrators must be able to administer the domain controller in their branch office. This includes changing device drivers and running Windows updates. What should you recommend?
A. Add each branch office administrator to the Administrators group of the domain.
B. Add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller.
C. Grant each branch office administrator Full Control permission on their domain controller computer object in Active Directory.
D. Move each branch office domain controller computer object to a new organizational unit (OU). Grant each local administrator Full Control permission on the
new OU.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To allow branch office administrators to manage their local domain controller only, change device drivers, and run Windows updates, you need to add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller. The users of Local administrator group have administrative rights on their local domain controllers to manage several machines to perform all necessary administrative tasks but they have restricted rights as compared to domain administrators.
Reference: Adding a group to the local administrators group

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-647 dumps
The Bridge all site links option is enabled.
You need to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in only the hub sites. The solution must ensure that domain controllers can replicate if a server fails in one of the hub sites.
What should you do?
A. Lower the site link costs between the spoke sites and the hub sites.
B. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Create site link bridges that include the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites.
C. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Install a writable domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in each hub site.
D. Enable the global catalog server attribute for all domain controllers in the hub sites. Upgrade all domain controllers in the spoke sites to Windows Server 2008.
70-647 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, all site links are bridged so that all the sites that are not connected by an explicit site link can communicate directly, through a chain of intermediary site links and sites. However, if you want to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites do not replicate with other spoke sites when a server fails in one of the hub sites, you need to disable the Bridge all site links option. You need to then create site link bridges to create the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in the hub sites.
Reference: Configuring site link bridges

QUESTION 8
Your company has 5,000 users. The network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a collaboration solution for the users to
meet the following requirements:
Support tracking of document version history.
Enable shared access to documents created in Microsoft Office. Enable shared access to documents created by using Web pages.
The solution must be achieved without requiring any additional costs. What should you recommend?
A. Install servers that run the Web Server role.
B. Install servers that run the Application Server role.
C. Install servers that run Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
D. Install servers that run Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) 2007.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To achieve the desired results without requiring any additional cost, you need to use Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
Reference: Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 and the Mobile Workplace

QUESTION 9
Your Company has 10 offices. Each office has 10 domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008. The network consists of one Active directory domain. Each office has a local administrator. You use domain-level Group Policy objects (GPO). Office administrators have the necessary permissions to create and link domain-level Group Policy objects. You create custom Administrative Template (.admx) files locally on a computer that runs Windows Vista. You need to implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to the .admx files from
each office. The solution must ensure that .admx files remain identical across the company. What should you do?
A. In the domain, create a central store. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
B. In each office, create a central store on a file server. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
C. Create a GPO and link it to the domain. Add the .admx files to the GPO.
D. Create a GPO and link it to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU). Add the custom .admx files to the GPO.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to these files from each office and to ensure that the .admx files remain identical across the company, you need to create a central store in the domain and copy the custom .admx files to the central store. The central store for ADMX files allows all local administrators to edit domain-based GPOs to access the same set of ADMX files. When a central store is created, the Group Policy tools will use the ADMX files only in the central store, ignoring the locally stored versions. You need to copy the custom .admx files to the central store and not add them because there need to be only one ADMX file and not multiple versions of the same file in the central store.

QUESTION 10
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The network contains one Active Directory site. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You create a second Active Directory site and plan to install a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in the new site. You also plan to deploy a new firewall to connect the two sites. You need to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites. Which traffic should you permit through the firewall?
A. LDAP
B. NetBIOS
C. RPC
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
You should permit RPC traffic through the firewall to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites because the Active Directory relies on remote
procedure call (RPC) for replication between domain controllers. You can open the firewall wide to permit RPC’s native dynamic behavior.

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QUESTION 6
What relationship is represented in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. manifestation of an artifact
B. node with deployed artifacts
C. node deployed on an artifact
D. node with annotated property values
E. node with deployment specifications
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What determines how many values will move across an object flow edge at one time?
A. effect
B. ordering
C. upper bound
D. selection
E. weight

F. transformation
Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What can be used when the source of an object flow has values of type Customer, and the target needs the name of the customer?
A. upper bound
B. selection
C. effect
D. ordering
E. weight
F. transformation
Answer: F

QUESTION 9
What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no exception parameters declared?
A. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
B. appended to an exception log
C. handled by a default handler
D. sent to the “ExceptionManager” object
E. ignored
70-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. p is a behavior port.
B. p is a hidden port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
B. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
C. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
70-410 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a procedural language.
B. OCL is a query language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a programming language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 13
What is true about a parameterized package? (Choose two)
A. a package where all classes in the package are parameterized
B. a package with different variants, where the parameters tell how the package may vary
C. names of classes within a parameterized package can be parameters of the package
D. a package from which new packages can be defined by binding parameters
E. a package that is instantiable, and where the actual parameters are provided when creating package instances
F. a package with parameters that are names of other imported packages and a binding tells which actual packages are imported
70-410 vce Answer: C,D

QUESTION 14
What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. can represent all system structures
B. is a kind of package
C. can represent only software systems

D. cannot contain another model
E. is a kind of component
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 15
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. failure mode use cases
E. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
Answer: C,D

QUESTION 16
What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
B. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
C. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
D. send a request to a port
Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is NOT true of a transition in a protocol state machine?
A. may have no associated operation
B. may have a precondition
C. may have multiple associated operation
D. may have a postcondition
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component’s namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. contents of the component’s namespace are promoted to its superclass
C. objects continue to exist

D. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
Answer: A

QUESTION 19
If an activity is executed three times in parallel, how many executions exist? (Choose two)
A. two
B. three
C. one
D. none
E. any number
70-410 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION 20
What is true of a protocol state machine?
A. may have a behavioral feature context
B. must be associated with exactly one classifier
C. may be associated with any number of classifiers
D. cannot be associated with a classifier
Answer: B

QUESTION 21
By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose three)
A. import
B. dependency
C. power types
D. inheritance
E. ownership
F. association end subsets
70-410 vce Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 22
What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
D. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
E. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
70-410 exam Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which classifiers may NOT realize an InformationItem?
A. Component
B. Interface
C. ObjectNode
D. Class
E. Signal
F. InformationItem
Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The preconditions of behavioral features of an interface can be specified in what way?
A. the set of its features
B. the actions of its protocol state machine
C. the parameters of its protocol state machine
D. comments attached to the corresponding features
E. one or more guard conditions of a protocol state machine
Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Duplicates are NOT allowed in which OCL types?
A. Collection
B. Bag
C. Set
D. Sequence
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What does a local precondition mean?
A. An activity begins executing when the precondition becomes true. B.
An action begins executing when the precondition becomes true.
C. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an activity begins executing.
D. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an action begins executing.
E. An activity may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
F. An action may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
Answer: D

QUESTION 27
If a data store node has three values and one moves across an outgoing edge, how many are left?
A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
C. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
D. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
E. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
Answer: A

QUESTION 29
To which layers in the 4-layer metamodel hierarchy for the UML metamodel (as depicted in the exhibit) do M1 and M2 correspond?
Exhibit:

A. M2 = user model; M1 = UML metamodel
B. M2 = user model; M1 = runtime instances
C. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = user model
D. M2 = MOF meta-metamodel; M1 = UML metamodel
E. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = MOF meta-metamodel
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. connector
B. transition
C. association
D. dependency
70-410 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 31
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. association
B. dependency
C. connector
D. transition

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a typed language.
B. OCL is a programming language.
C. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
D. OCL is a query language.
E. OCL is a procedural language.
F. OCL is a specification language.
Answer: A,D,F

QUESTION 33
What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
D. a particular aspect of a collaboration
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
B. failure mode use cases
C. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component repository
Answer: A,B

QUESTION 35
In the exhibit, at which levels are the DeploymentSpecifications?
Exhibit:

A. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = instance level
B. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = spec level
C. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = spec level
D. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = instance level
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 36
If an action has a behavior with three sets of parameters, how many of the sets can provide output for a single execution of the behavior?
A. any number
B. two
C. one
D. three
Answer: C

QUESTION 37
The exhibit depicts the UML superstructure packages for behavioral models. What is the correct identity for packages Foo and Bar?
Exhibit:

A. Foo = Activities; Bar = Collaborations
B. Foo = CommonBehaviors; Bar = Activities
C. Foo = CoreBehavior; Bar = Communications
D. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Sequences
E. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Activities
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 38
What boundary do lightning bolt arrows cross to have an effect?
A. structured node
B. interruptible region
C. activity
D. exception region
E. expansion region
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 39
In the exhibit, what is the minimum number of incoming arrows that must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
Exhibit:

A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: C,E

QUESTION 41
An information flow may NOT occur between which elements?
A. classes
B. instance specifications
C. use cases
D. packages
E. associations
70-410 dumps Answer: E

QUESTION 42
Which stereotype is NOT expected to see decorating an ExecutionEnvironment instance?
A. <<database subsystem>>
B. <<stream file>>
C. <<workflow engine>>
D. <<CRM System>>

E. <<OS>>
Answer: B

QUESTION 43
What is an abstract type in OCL?
A. Bag
B. Sequence
C. Integer
D. Set
E. Collection
70-410 pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 44
Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<source>>
C. <<executable>>
D. <<script>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

QUESTION 45
What characteristic of an object node can prevent it from receiving a value?
A. selection
B. effect
C. ordering
D. upper bound
E. transformation
F. weight
70-410 vce Answer: D

70-410 dumps

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. Subsequent to deploying a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, you are instructed to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to the server. You want to achieve this goal from the command prompt. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of the dism.exe command.
B. You should consider making use of the dsquery.exe command.

C. You should consider making use of the dsadd.exe command.
D. You should consider making use of the dsrm.exe command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Hyper-V hosts contains several virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Network Load Balancing feature on the virtual machines. You need to configure the virtual machines to support Network Load Balancing (NLB). Which virtual machine settings should you configure?
A. Port mirroring
B. DHCP guard
C. Router guard
D. MAC address
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. The forest contains five domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps

You need to configure DC5 as a global catalog server. Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You have received instructions to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on a server, named L2P-SR07. You want to achieve this remotely from a server, named L2P-SR06. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR07.
B. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR06.
C. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR07.
D. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR06.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
B. New-StoragePool
C. Diskpart
D. Share and Storage Management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are in the process of installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, named L2P-SR13. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to a installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Server Graphical Shell is installed, but not enabled.
B. Server roles can be configured locally via the command prompt using Windows PowerShell.
C. Server roles can be configured locally via Server Manager.
D. You are able to access the Microsoft Management Console locally.

E. The Desktop Experience is not available.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 25
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Correct Answer: C
70-410 exam 
QUESTION 26
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
70-410 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: A
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