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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 85

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1: Will the following SELECT query list all of the tables in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA
database? If not, why?
SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA = ‘INFORMATION_SCHEMA’
ORDER BY TABLE_NAME
A.Yes.
B.No; the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database does not contain information on itself.
C.No; the WHERE clause is incorrect. The correct field name is TABLE_SCHEMATA.
D.No; there is no table in the INFORMATION_SCHEMA database called TABLES.
200-155 exam Correct Answers: A
2: Which of the following are some general capabilites of the mysql client program?
A.Create and Drop databases
B.Ping the server
C.Create, Drop, and modify tables and indexes.
D.Shutdown the server.
E.Create users.
F.Display replication server status.
Correct Answers: A C E F
3: Suppose you have a server that has been started with the –myisam-recover option. When does
the server perform the check on the MyISAM tables?
A.Each time the server is started.
B.Each time it encounters an error.
C.Each time it opens the MyISAM table files.
D.Each time the CHECK TABLE command is issued.
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: C
4: Consider the following query:
DELETE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE table_schema = ‘world’
AND table_name = ‘Country’
What would be the result of executing this query?
A.An error would be issued
B.A warning would be issued
C.The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES table, and the table
Country would be dropped from the world database
D.The row would be deleted from the INFORMATION_SCHEMA, but the table Country in the
world database would be unaffected.
Correct Answers: A
5: Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A.–shared-memory
B.–memlock
C.–no-networking
D.–skip-networking
200-155 pdf Correct Answers: D
6: What are some advantages of using the SHOW command rather than using the
INFORMATION_SCHEMA?
A.It is available for releases older than MySQL 5.0.
B.It returns results quicker than using the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.
C.Using SHOW can provide more concise information.
D.SHOW is a feature of standard SQL, and INFORMATION_SCHEMA is a MySQL specific
command.
Correct Answers: A C
7: Index analysis and optimization using ANALYZE and OPTIMIZE statements should…
A.generally never be run manually
B.be run once the table reaches 100,000 rows or above
C.be run when more than 5% of the rows are changed by a single statement
D.be run when EXPLAIN SELECT shows that an inordinate amount of rows is expected to be
read during query execution
E.be run when you suspect that a table is heavily fragmented
200-155 vce Correct Answers: D E
8: Suppose you have a column in which most records are going to be between 30 and 32
characters. Which of the following column types would be most efficient?
A.VARCHAR
B.CHAR
C.TEXT
D.Either VARCHAR or CHAR
Correct Answers: B
9: Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A.Connector/J
B.Connector/ODBC
C.C API
D.Connector/NET
E.Connector/MJX
200-155 exam Correct Answers: C
10: Which of the following are some benefits of using MySQL built binaries over binaries built by
yourself?
A.They are highly optimized.
B.They are cross-platform.

C.Many are built using commercial compilers that produce a better quality build than with freely
available compilers.
D.They will work with tools such as MySQL Administrator and MySQL Query Browser.
E.They may include libraries not available in the standard operating system library.
Correct Answers: A C E
11: Assume you compile MySQL from source and invoke configure with the following options.
–with-charset=latin1 –with-extra-charsets=utf8,ucs2
Compared to a standard binary installation that contains many more character sets, which of the
following statements is/are true?
A.The compiled version will use less disk space, because only a few character sets will be
installed on disk.
B.The compiled version will use less memory, because only a few character sets will be loaded by
the server.
C.The compiled version will use less file handles, because only a few files need to be opened
when the server is started.
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: A B
12: Which of the following are true for how BTREE and HASH index types should be used for
MEMORY tables?
A.HASH index types are only for use with equality comparisions such as those using the = and
<=> operators.
B.BTREE index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality
operators such as = and <=>
C.BTREE index types are only for use with equality comparisons such as those using the = and
<=> operators.
D.HASH index types are preferable for use with comparisons that do not just use equality
operators such as = and <=>
Correct Answers: A B
13: Which of the following are some general properties of the mysqlimport client program?
A.It loads data files into tables.
B.It can load files only on the server host.
C.It provides a command-line interface to the LOAD DATA INFILE.
D.It can load files both on the client and server host.
E.It bypasses the server and writes directly to the corresponding data files.
200-155 pdf Correct Answers: A C D
14: Which of the following statements are true?
A.InnoDB supports Foreign Keys.
B.MyISAM supports Foreign Keys.
C.InnoDB supports cascaded DELETE statements.
D.MyISAM supports cascaded DELETE statements.
E.InnoDB supports cascaded UPDATE statements.

F.MyISAM supports cascaded UPDATE statements.
Correct Answers: A C E
15: In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A.Format files for all the tables
B.Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C.InnoDB tablespace files
D.General server logs
E.MySQL upgrade script files
200-155 vce Correct Answers: A B C D
16: Which of the following statements is true for mysqldump?
A.It can dump data only on remote servers.
B.It can dump data only on the local server.
C.It can dump data on both local and remote servers.
Correct Answers: C
17: Which of the following best describes the scope of explicitly and implicitly set locks?
A.Explicitly set locks may span several commands.
B.Implicitly set locks may span several commands.
C.Implicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
D.Explicitly set locks will span only one statement or transaction.
200-155 exam Correct Answers: A B C
18: MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is
handled by it’s own thread.
A.True
B.False
Correct Answers: A
19: Which of the following are true regarding the table cache?
A.It is used to cache row data in open tables
B.It holds file descriptors for open tables
C.The size of the table cache may be set per-session
D.Each connection has its own table cache. They are of equal size, set globally.
E.There is one table cache, shared among all sessions.
F.Increasing the size of the variable table_cache allows mysqld to keep more tables open
simultaneously
200-155 dumps Correct Answers: B E F

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Updated: Jul 24, 2017
Q&As: 269

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300-208

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-208 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
Which three pieces of information can be found in an authentication detail report? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP vendor ID
B. user agent string
C. the authorization rule matched by the endpoint
D. the EAP method the endpoint is using
E. the RADIUS username being used
F. failed posture requirement
300-208 exam Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 2
Which RADIUS attribute is used primarily to differentiate an IEEE 802.1x request from a Cisco MAB
request?
A. RADIUS Attribute (5) NAS-Port
B. RADIUS Attribute (6) Service-Type
C. RADIUS Attribute (7) Framed-Protocol
D. RADIUS Attribute (61) NAS-Port-Type
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What user rights does an account need to join ISE to a Microsoft Active Directory domain?
A. Create and Delete Computer 0bjects
B. Domain Admin
C. Join and Leave Domain
D. Create and Delete User 0bjects
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
You enabled the guest session limit feature on the Cisco ISE. However, end users report that the same
guest can log in from multiple devices simultaneously.
Which configuration is missing on the network access device?
A. RADIUS authentication
B. RADIUS accounting
C. DHCP required
D. AAA override
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
After an endpoint has completed authentication with MAB, a security violation is triggered because a
different MAC address was detected.
Which host mode must be active on the port?
A. single-hostmode
B. multidomain authentication host mode
C. multiauthentication host mode
D. multihost mode
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. multidomain authentication host mode
B. multihost mode
C. multi-MAC host mode
D. single-host mode
E. dual-host mode
F. multi-auth hostmode
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 7
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the
web authenticationportal?(Choosetwo.)
A. ISE
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
300-208 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which type of remediation does Windows Server Update Services provide?
A. automatic remediation
B. administrator-initiated remediation
C. redirect remediation
D. central Web auth remediation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What type of Identity group is the Blacklist Identity group?
A. endpoint
B. user
C. blackhole
D. quarantine
E. denied systems
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208

If a user with privilege 15 is matching this command set on Cisco ISE 2.0, which three commands can the
user execute? (Choose three.)
A. configure terminal
B. show run
C. show clock
D. ping 10.10.100.1
E. exit
F. show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 11
Which remediation type ensures that Automatic Updates configuration is turned on Windows clients per
security policy to remediate Windows clients for posture compliance?
A. AS Remediation
B. File Remediation
C. Launch Program Remediation
D. Windows Update Remediation
E. WindowsServerUpdateServicesRemediation
300-208 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.)
A. The port is error disabled.
B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port.
C. The port generates a port resistance error.
D. The port attempts to repair the violation.
E. The port is placed in quarantine state.
F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13
Your guest-access wireless network is experiencing degraded performance and excessive latency due to
user saturation. Which type of rate limiting can you implement on your network to correct the problem?
A. per-device
B. per-policy
C. per-access point
D. per-controller
E. per-application
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which ISE feature is used to facilitate a BY0D deployment?
A. self-service personal device registration and onboarding
B. Guest Service Sponsor Portal
C. Local Web Auth
D. Guest Identity Source Sequence
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which two types of client provisioning resources are used for BY0D implementations? (Choose two.)
A. user agent
B. Cisco NAC agent
C. nativesupplicantprofiles
D. device sensor
E. software provisioning wizards
300-208 vce Correct Answer: CE

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[2017-July-17] 100% Success Rate ICND1 100-105 PDF Cisco Interconnecting Is What You Need To Take on Slideboom

The Cisco Certified Entry level Network Technician — Routing and Switching (CCENT) certification is, as the name implies, designed for entry-level IT networking professionals. It is the first step toward earning several Associate-level certifications from Cisco, the most popular of which is the Cisco http://www.kill4exam.com/100-105.html pdf Cisco Certified Network Associate – Routing and Switching (CCNA R&S). The CCENT is made up of just one exam, which is covered by kill4exam pdf training

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
Total Questions: 309 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 11, 2017

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 100-105

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QUESTION 16
Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between three
predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera’s I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which of the following conditions has to be met to use multicast streaming?
A. The network infrastructure has to support multicast
B. The client has to run AXIS Camera Management or AXIS Camera Station
C. The client has to support streaming over RTSP
D. The video device needs to run on firmware version 5.20 or higher
100-105  exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
With Axis Coverage Shapes, the designer can
A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.
B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.
C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.
D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:
A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate
C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio
D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
100-105  dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which is true about P-iris?
A. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that reduces complexity and cost while maintaining
image quality
B. In bright situations. P-iris limits the closing of the iris to avoid blurring caused by diffraction when the iris
opening becomes too small
C. The P-iris delivers the optimal depth of field by always using the smallest possible aperture for the
available lightning
D. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that allows the iris to react to rapidly changing lighting
conditions
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
The Axis pixel counter allows a user to
A. Convert pixels to actual distances.
B. Verify that the resolution requirements for a scene are met.
C. Determine the file size for each video frame.
D. Specify different exposure zones in a scene.
100-105  vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which of the following actions can be taken using the AXIS T8414 Installation Display? (Choose two)
A. Power up a PoE camera
B. Make snapshots
C. Access a camera’s home page
D. Reset a camera to factory default values
E. Read user documentation for cameras
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
If a camera is pointed down a hallway with no windows and the color seems “washed out” or faded, which
of the following settings should first be adjusted to improve the image?
A. Decrease image brightness
B. Increase image contrast
C. Uncheck backlight compensation
D. Adjust the exposure settings
100-105  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
In a switched network with Unicast
A. Data packets are sent only to one recipient no other computers will receive the data.
B. Data packets can only be sent in one direction, for example from the camera to the server.
C. Only one camera at a time can send data packets through the network, to avoid congestion.
D. All data packets are transmitted in a unified size, enabling network optimization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Who should be responsible for documenting a video surveillance installation?
A. The camera manufacturer
B. The customer’s security manager
C. The customer’s IT department
D. The integrator
100-105  vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
A Privacy mask added to Live View (Choose two)
A. Hides parts of the scene.
B. Restricts access to the camera.
C. Can be removed from recorded video.
D. Lowers the bandwidth usage.
E. Can be made into any shape.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
An analog system that should be upgraded to IP using encoders must have the end of the analog signal
terminated. How many Ohm () should that be?
A. 50
B. 70
C. 75
D. 80
100-105  dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
A customer asks for a fixed mini dome with a DC-iris lens. 2.8-10 mm varifocal lens and wide dynamic
range. Which of the following cameras is the only choice to fit all of the requirements?
A. AXIS P3301
B. AXIS M3203
C. AXIS Q1604
D. AXIS M5014
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Total Questions: 65 Q&As
Updated on: May 23, 2017
Exam Information: http://www.flydumps.com/210-255.html

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Flydumps Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 40
You work as the systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You have just completed configuring the / Network default view in Mac OS X Server v10.4. Which of the following will see this view?
A. all users
B. unbound DHCP users
C. users connected via VPN
D. bound unmanaged users

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
What is the effect of selecting “Map All users to nobody” when you configure NFS export settings for a share point?
A. Export of any items or contents to any users will be prevented.
B. The group nobody that is used for NFS access is created.
C. The NFS server treats every user the same as nobody.
D. The NFS server identifies all users by their client settings.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. You are configuring a user account in Workgroup Manager. Which of the following password types would require that the user authenticates via Mac OS X Server password server?
A. Crypt
B. Shadow
C. Open Directory
D. Kerberos Distribution

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
Where in the graphical user interface of Mac OS X Server v10.4 would you configure Service Access Control Lists?
A. In Server Admin under the Settings pane associated with general services
B. In Server Admin under the Settings pane associated with each services
C. In Workgroup Manager Accounts User or Group panes
D. In Workgroup Manager Sharing Access pane

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
You work as a systems administer at Certkiller .com. You want to manage user preference for the login window appearance and for auto-logout on a Mac OS X Server v10.4 computer. You choose the Always option. What effect will this configuration have at startup?
A. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will not be able to access their login preferences in Accounts preferences.
B. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access and make changes to their login preferences in Accounts preferences.
C. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access their login preferences an Accounts preferences but they will not be able to change them.
D. Users will experience the login settings you selected and will be able to access their login preferences in Accounts preferences and make changes to them, but their changes will be overridden by the administrator settings at the next startup.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which of the following tasks does the new Preference Manifests feature in Mac OS X Server v10.4 allow a Workgroup Manager to perform?
A. Access application preferences.
B. Associate preferences to a computer record.
C. Store a common set of preferences in a directory.
D. Read related blocks of managed preferences at user login.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
You work as a systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You create a SMB share point on a Mac OS X Server v10.4 server. You configure the system to allow users to create files and folders on the share point. Which of the following statements are true regarding newly created files and folders on the share point? (Choose Two)
A. You can assign permission on shared folders.
B. Sharing files permissions are defined by the umask.
C. You can set shared files to inherit permission from the parent folder.
D. Owner and group always get Read & write permission to shared files.
E. The permissions you set files and folder do not apply to administrators.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 47
In what order will your Apple File Server attempt to authenticate a user when you choose “Any” as the authentication method for the Apple File Server?
A. Standard first, then Kerberos and then SSH.
B. SSH first, then Standard and then Kerberos.
C. Kerberos first and then Standard.
D. Standard first, then Kerberos.
E. Kerberos first and then SSH.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
What is a printer pool in the Mac OS X Server v10.4 print service?
A. A string identifying the printer manufacturer.
B. A utility that identifies the model of the printer that is shared.
C. The protocol used to access network print queues.
D. A queue that can have more than one printer assigned to it.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When should you enable strict locking in Mac OS X Server v10.4? (Choose Two)
A. When you share a volume over FTP.
B. When you share a volume over AFP.
C. When you share a volume over SMB.
D. When you share a volume over SFTP.
Correct Answer: BC

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Cisco ICND2 v3.0 Exam Guide | 2017 Most Reliable 200-105 PDF Network Simulator in the Latest Version

The 200-105 pdf cool part about this announcement, is that Cisco did not change the exam structure, requirements, or simply eliminated any certification (which they can, its their certification program anyway xD). Its a very simple change, easy to understand. Now, the funny part lies in the contents.

Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 204
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-105.html

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200-105 pdf Exam Code:  200-105
Exam Name Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
File size 75MB
Category Cisco
200-105 PDF Pages 19
Language English
File format PDF
Website:  Pass4itsure.com

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QUESTION 37
Which two of the following can be performed using the BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager but cannot be performed in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a Blackberry device application load
B. Set activation password
C. Perform a wired synchronization
D. Resend service books
E. Perform a BlackBerry device back up

Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 38
When configuring a BlackBerry device for access to Wi-Fi, which two of the following pieces of information are required? (Choose two.)
A. IMEI
B. PIN
C. WLAN MAC
D. IMSI
E. SSID

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 39
A BlackBerry device user is moving to a different BlackBerry Domain. What will have to be done to the BlackBerry device before it can be successfully activated over the wireless network? (Choose one.)
A. Perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
B. Perform a security wipe on the BlackBerry device
C. Delete all Desktop service books
D. Have the service provider re-provision the BlackBerry device
E. Remove the Messages icon

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 40
In a low memory situation, which of the following will Low Memory Manager do to make more memory available on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one)
A. Copy all media from the BlackBerry device memory to a microSD card
B. Close all currently running applications
C. Delete the least used third party applications
D. Advise that there is not enough memory to perform any operations
E. Other applications will remove low priority data

Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 41
Which two of the following scenarios explains why Email Settings is grayed out in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
A. A supported email application is installed but not running
B. BlackBerry Desktop Manager was not fully installed
C. The appropriate permissions were not present during the installation of BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. A MAPI profile was not selected
E. No supported email application is installed

Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 42
Which three of the following BlackBerry device user management functions can be performed with the BlackBerry Administration Service for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. Create a user account
B. Delete a user account
C. Synchronize a BlackBerry device
D. Install BlackBerry Device Software
E. Assign a BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: ABE  200-105 pdf
QUESTION 43
A BlackBerry device user indicates they have downloaded updated BlackBerry Device Software and installed it on a computer. When attempting to run the application loader tool for their service provider branded BlackBerry device, the following error message is displayed: No software available for update. Which three of the following options are possible causes for this error message? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Device Software was not properly installed
B. A generic version of the BlackBerry Device Software was installed rather than service provider specific BlackBerry Device Software
C. Service provider specific BlackBerry Device Software was installed rather than the generic BlackBerry Device Software
D. BlackBerry Device Software was properly installed but automatically updated by BlackBerry Updater
E. BlackBerry Device Software for a different BlackBerry device was installed

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 44
A BlackBerry device user wants to synchronize the BlackBerry device with an organizer application that is not compatible with BlackBerry Desktop Manager. However, the vendor of this application has software that adds this functionality to BlackBerry Desktop Manager. What does the user need to do in BlackBerry Desktop Manager to enable the functionality? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new application icon for the organizer application
B. Configure Add-ins from within the Synchronize application
C. Run the application loader tool to install the software to the BlackBerry device
D. Enable advanced synchronization support in iloptcfg.cfg
E. Clear the targeted organizer data (PIM) database on the BlackBerry device using the advanced backup and restore tool
Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 45

A user BlackBerry device powered down spontaneously, and is now displaying the following error:
Error Code 507
Which two of the following steps should a system administrator use to troubleshoot this error? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and perform a fresh synchronization
B. Perform a hard reset of the BlackBerry device and see if the error code persists
C. Obtain a replacement SIM card and see if the BlackBerry device will start up
D. Connect the BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and run the application loader tool to reload the BlackBerry Device Software
E. Attempt a Bluetooth connection to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and then synchronize that way

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 46
Which of the following indicates the best signal on a BlackBerry device Located under Options > Status > Signal? (Choose one.)
A. -85mhz
B. -200dbm
C. EDGE
D. +104
E. -85dbm

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
A BlackBerry device user calls in because the enterprise activation of a new BlackBerry device is stopping at Activating. Which two of the following steps should be followed by a support representative in order to help the user? (Choose two.)
A. Tell the user to contact their Internet service provider
B. Check provisioning and if it incorrect educate the user on the required provisioning services
C. Have the system administrator remove and re-add the user to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Verify that the user is entering the activation password exactly as provided
E. Have the user perform a hard reset on the BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 48
The latest version of the BlackBerry Desktop Software is typically available from which two of the following locations? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry website
B. The wireless service provider BlackBerry device downloads site
C. The CD-ROM included with the BlackBerry device
D. A third party download website
E. The BlackBerry device support forums

Correct Answer: AB

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Exam Number: 300-085 CAPPS
Associated Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Duration 75 Minutes: (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages:  English
Register Pearson: VUE
Exam Policies Read: current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial Review: type of exam questions

  • 300-085 Exam Description

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This 300-085 dump exam tests candidates on the integration options of Cisco Unified IM and Presence, Cisco Unity Express, Cisco Unity Connection, Cisco Prime Collaboration, and Cisco Management Suite in a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution. It covers voice messaging deployment scenarios, Cisco Unified IM and Presence features, and the implementation of Cisco Jabber. The exam also covers Cisco Prime Collaboration features and the role of Cisco Management Suite in a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution.

QUESTION 1
There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system
management interface (SMI).
Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?

A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.
B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA is for customers.
C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA provides access to day-to-day administration functions.
D. Old hardware and software (Pre ?5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and software
(5.x and later) is administered using ASA.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit. Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group 50?

A. Display board CLAN10
B. List node-name all
C. List ip-address nodes
D. List ip-interface nodes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Communication Manager Backups are done through the system management interface (SMI). Which three statements about the Communication Manager backup function are correct? (Choose three) Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com
A. The backup function creates two complete files on the internal hardware drive.
B. The backup function can create a file on a network device using protocols: SCP, SFTP, or FTP.
C. The backup function can encrypt the file with a pass phrase.
D. The backup is done dynamically and cannot be scheduled in advance.
E. The full Backup option does not do Save Transaction Command Automatically before creating the backup file.

Correct Answer: BCE
117-201 exam QUESTION 4
You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media Gateway and
a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and MM71 in the slot V2,
and an MM712 in the slot V3.
Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?

A. MM710
B. MM712
C. MGP on the media gateway
D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one administered
telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office telephone and one outside
cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to es ?in order to use this functionality:
Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin. Which command do you use to verify the field settings?

A. System-parameters features
B. System-parameters customer-options
C. System-parameters wireless
D. System-parameters converge-forwarding

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to “point” to Avaya 3100 Exam | EnsurePass.com
the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension, you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was used on each log-on attempt.
You look up the user’s information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the security code field is.

A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.
B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.
C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.
D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You want a user’s station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only. Which station configuration will achieve this?
A. Assign COR 11 to user’ station, In COR11. Set COR-to COR calling permission = `n’ for all except COR 10. Assign COR to 5605 and 5608. Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.
B. The FRL = 7to user’s station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608. Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser
C. Assign COR 10 to user’s station. In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = `n’ for all except. Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608. Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.
D. The FRL = 5 to user’s station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608. Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.

Correct Answer: A

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Total Questions: 239

Test Number: 100-105

Vendor Name: CISCO

Cert Name: CCNA

Test Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

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Question: 1

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

  1. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
  2. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
  3. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
  4. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
  5. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: A, B, E   

Explanation:

Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet—typically 10BaseT—is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps—at most.

Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

 

 

Question: 2

Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?

  1. application
  2. session
  3. transport
  4. network
  5. data link
  6. physical

Answer: D   

Explanation:

Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses network address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address of the next hop device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network address remains the same.

 

Question: 3

Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?

  1. Internet layer
  2. transport layer
  3. application layer
  4. network access layer

Answer: D   

Explanation:

The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model.

Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.

 

 

Question: 4

Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?

  1. TFTP
  2. DNS
  3. FTP
  4. SNMP
  5. RIP

Answer: C   

Explanation:

TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established–the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered–before the message can be delivered.

TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release.

Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.

 

 

Question: 5

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?

  1. broadcast domains
  2. repeater domains
  3. Ethernet collisions
  4. signal amplification
  5. Ethernet broadcasts

Answer: C    300-075 vce

 

 

Question: 6

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?

  1. 10.168.10.99
  2. 10.168.11.88
  3. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
  4. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
  5. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
  6. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4

Answer: E   

 

Question: 7

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?

  1. abcd.1123.0045
  2. 192.168.7.17
  3. aabb.5555.2222
  4. 192.168.1.1
  5. abcd.2246.0035

Answer: E   

Explanation:

For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.

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CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam Version 5.0 (400-101) Exam Outline Topics

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Cisco CCIE Routing & Switching Written Exam (400-101) version 5.0 is a two-hour test with 90-110 questions to ensure that the professionals have the expertise to: configure, validate and troubleshoot network infrastructure complex society; and understand how to interpret the infrastructure components; and translated functional requirements specific device configurations. The 400-101 pdf  is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included in the test. However, other related 400-101 exam topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Questions No:1
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf
If you change the Spanning Tree Protocol from pvst to rapid-pvst, what is the effect on the

interface Fa0/1 port state?
A. It transitions to the listening state, and then the forwarding state.
B. It transitions to the learning state and then the forwarding state.
C. It transitions to the blocking state, then the learning state, and then the forwarding state.
D. It transitions to the blocking state and then the forwarding state.
Answer: C

Questions No:2
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf

Which configuration is missing that would enable SSH access on a router that is running Cisco IOS XE Software?

A. int Gig0/0/0 management-interface
B. class-map ssh-class match access-group protect-ssh policy-map control-plane-in class ssh-class police 80000 conform transmit exceed drop control-plane service-policy input control-plane-in 
C. control-plane host management-interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 allow ssh
D. interface Gig0/0/0 ip access-group protect-ssh in The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
Answer: C   300-075 vce

Questions No:3
Which two options are causes of out-of-order packets? (Choose two.)
A. a routing loop
B. a router in the packet flow path that is intermittently dropping packets
C. high latency
D. packets in a flow traversing multiple paths through the network
E. some packets in a flow being process-switched and others being interrupt-switched on a transit router
Answer: D,E
Questions No:4
A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but
attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of
this problem?
A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached.
D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.
Answer: D
Questions No:5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What

is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
Answer: D

Questions No:6
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 pdf
Which statement is true?
A. It is impossible for the destination interface to equal the source interface.
B. NAT on a stick is performed on interface Et0/0.
C. There is a potential routing loop.
D. This output represents a UDP flow or a TCP flow.
Answer: C

Questions No:7

Which three conditions can cause excessive unicast flooding? (Choose three.)
A. Asymmetric routing
B. Repeated TCNs
C. The use of HSRP
D. Frames sent to FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
E. MAC forwarding table overflow
F. The use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
Answer: A,B,E

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QUESTION 49
As an administrator of an Open Directory master and its replicas, which command would you use to force a replication?
A. ldapd
B. syncd
C. slapconfig
D. slapd.access

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Mary logs in to Mac OS X v10.4 as an Active Directory user via Apple Active Directory plug-in. A network home folder has been configured for her account. By default, her home folder ________.
A. on the local volume is disabled
B. resides on an auto-mounted AFP volume from Mac OS X Server
C. is stored locally, but an SMB ome is mounted on the desktop
D. resides on the NFS volume provided by the Active Directory domain
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Your user accounts are stored on an Active Directory server. Which action is necessary to enable your users to access Mac OS X Server services that require authentication?
A. Start the LDAP server on the Mac OS X Server.
B. Manually create computer accounts on the Active Directory server.
C. Add the Mac OS X Server computer to the Authentication Search Path on the client computers.
D. Configure the Active Directory plug-in on the Mac OS X Server to connect to the Active Directory server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
You are creating a configuration in Directory Access to access an LDAP server. The user accounts on the LDAP server do not include an attribute to specify the location of the home folder. Which mapping for the HomeDirectory attribute would enable the user account to access a home folder that has the same name as the uid value in the LDAP account?
A. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/uid</url></home_dir>
B. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/%uid</url></home_dir>
C. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users</url><path>$uid$</path></home_dir>
D. #<home_dir><url>afp://depot.pretendco.com/Users/<path>%uid</path></url></home_dir>

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which Open Directory group record attribute is used by access control list (ACL) file permissions?
A. UniqueID
B. GeneratedUID
C. PrimaryGroupID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B   200-355 dumps
QUESTION 54
Which command-line utility can be used to remove Kerberos tickets from the cache on a Mac OS X client computer?
A. kdestroy
B. klist -e
C. kinit -r
D. kmod

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
You need to configure some Mac OS X computers to bind to an LDAP server not running on a Macintosh computer. This is the first time that you have tried to use this LDAP server. What should be your first step?
A. In the LDAP plug-in in Directory Access, create mappings to supplement required user account attributes that are not on the LDAP database.
B. Use an LDAP browsing tool to verify the connection settings and identify the structure and format of the data stored on the server.
C. Create a new LDAP configuration in Directory Access and determine the connection settings through experimentation.
D. Have the server system administrator modify the schema to support missing attributes that are required by Mac OS X.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
Which Open Directory user record attribute is used by standard BSD file permissions?
A. naprivs
B. UniqueID
C. GeneratedUID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B

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Everything You Need to Know About Cisco’s 300-115 Exam

Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Jan 05, 2017
Q&As: 201
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QUESTION 8
Where do you find the Mac OS X v.10.2 Connect To Server command?
A. System Preferences
B. Network Utility
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Finder/File/Connect To Server
E. Finder/Go/Connect To Server

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
What are the different types of user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. root
B. Administrator
C. Child
D. User
E. Limited
F. sudo
G. Windows Only

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
In Finder, how do you set individual user permissions and privileges, other than the standard user permissions? Choose two.
A. Finder/File/Show Info
B. Finder/View/Show Info
C. Command + I
D. Command + S
E. Favorites
F. Apple Menu/Options

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
Under each user’s home folder, which folders are visible, contents and all, to every user? Choose all that apply.
A. Desktop
B. Library
C. Shared
D. Documents
E. Inbox
F. Outbox
G. Public
H. Sites

Correct Answer: GH     300-206 exam
QUESTION 12
In Mac OS X v. 10.2 where are the fonts stored? Choose two.
A. Library/Fonts
B. Services/Fonts
C. Resources/Fonts
D. Applications/Utilities/Fonts
E. Home folder/Public/Fonts
F. Home folder/Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 13
How can you access the command line in Mac OS X v.10.2? Choose all that apply.
A. Applications/Terminal
B. Applications/Darwin
C. Apple Menu/Command Line
D. During startup, hold down Command + S
E. At the Login window, type in >console
F. At the Login window, type in >local
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 14
What is the code name for the Mac OS X v.10.2 GUI?
A. Jaguar
B. Panther
C. Darwin
D. Aqua
E. iDisplay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15

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