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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-40)

QUESTION 1
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
210-260 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which statement about college campus is true?
A. College campus has geographical position.
B. College campus Hasn`t got internet access.
C. College campus Has multiple subdomains.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two characteristics apply to an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) Choose two
A. Does not add delay to the original traffic.
B. Cabled directly inline with the flow of the network traffic.
C. Can drop traffic based on a set of rules.
D. Runs in promoscous mode.
E. Cannot drop the packet on its own
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which type of PVLAN port allows hosts in the same VLAN to communicate directly with each other?
A. community for hosts in the PVLAN
B. promiscuous for hosts in the PVLAN
C. isolated for hosts in the PVLAN
D. span for hosts in the PVLAN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An attacker installs a rogue switch that sends superior BPDUs on your network. What is a possible result of this activity?
A. The switch could offer fake DHCP addresses.
B. The switch could become the root bridge.
C. The switch could be allowed to join the VTP domain.
D. The switch could become a transparent bridge.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5
E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
210-260 vce Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
B. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
C. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
D. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What type of packet creates and performs network operations on a network device?
A. control plane packets
B. data plane packets
C. management plane packets
D. services plane packets
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
How does the Cisco ASA use Active Directory to authorize VPN users?
A. It queries the Active Directory server for a specific attribute for the specified user.
B. It sends the username and password to retrieve an ACCEPT or REJECT message from the Active Directory server.
C. It downloads and stores the Active Directory database to query for future authorization requests.
D. It redirects requests to the Active Directory server defined for the VPN group.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two functions can SIEM provide? (Choose Two)
A. Correlation between logs and events from multiple systems.
B. event aggregation that allows for reduced log storage requirements.
C. proactive malware analysis to block malicious traffic.
D. dual-factor authentication.
E. centralized firewall management.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two uses of SIEM software? (Choose two.)
A. collecting and archiving syslog data
B. alerting administrators to security events in real time
C. performing automatic network audits
D. configuring firewall and IDS devices
E. scanning email for suspicious attachments
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure data?
A. a public/private key pair
B. shared secret keys
C. an RSA nonce
D. an MD5 hash
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?
A. IPS
B. fail-close
C. IDS
D. fail-open
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the effect of the ASA command crypto isakmp nat-traversal?
A. It opens port 4500 only on the outside interface.
B. It opens port 500 only on the inside interface.
C. It opens port 500 only on the outside interface.
D. It opens port 4500 on all interfaces that are IPSec enabled.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is true about the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?
A. The feature can be disabled through a remote session
B. There is additional space required to secure the primary Cisco IOS Image file
C. The feature automatically detects image and configuration version mismatch
D. Remote storage is used for securing files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which prevent the company data from modification even when the data is in transit?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Vailability
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which IPS detection method can you use to detect attacks that based on the attackers IP addresses?
A. Policy-based
B. Anomaly-based
C. Reputation-based
D. Signature-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 20
Which filter uses in Web reputation to prevent from Web Based Attacks? (Choose two)
A. outbreak filter
B. buffer overflow filter
C. bayesian overflow filter
D. web reputation
E. exploit filtering
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
How does a zone-based firewall implementation handle traffic between interfaces in the same zone?
A. Traffic between two interfaces in the same zone is allowed by default.
B. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you configure the same- security permit command.
C. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is always blocked.
D. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you apply a service policy to the zone pair.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
What is a potential drawback to leaving VLAN 1 as the native VLAN?
A. It may be susceptible to a VLAN hoping attack.
B. Gratuitous ARPs might be able to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.
C. The CAM might be overloaded, effectively turning the switch into a hub.
D. VLAN 1 might be vulnerable to IP address spoofing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is the actual IOS privilege level of User Exec mode?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 5
D. 15
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which three statements about Cisco host-based IPS solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
# nat (inside,outside) dynamic interface Refer to the above. Which translation technique does this configuration result in?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Dynamic PAT
D. Twice NAT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a switch is true?
A. The isolated port can communicate only with the promiscuous port.
B. The isolated port can communicate with other isolated ports and the promiscuous port.
C. The isolated port can communicate only with community ports.
D. The isolated port can communicate only with other isolated ports.

210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?
A. a symmetric algorithm
B. an asymmetric algorithm
C. a Public Key Infrastructure algorithm
D. an IP security algorithm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Where OAKLEY and SKEME come to play?
A. IKE
B. ISAKMP
C. DES
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
In which configuration mode do you configure the ip ospf authentication-key 1 command?
A. Interface
B. routing process
C. global
D. privileged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which of the following commands result in a secure bootset? (Choose all that apply.)
A. secure boot-set
B. secure boot-config
C. secure boot-files
D. secure boot-image
210-260 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
In a security context, which action can you take to address compliance?
A. Implement rules to prevent a vulnerability.
B. Correct or counteract a vulnerability.
C. Reduce the severity of a vulnerability.
D. Follow directions from the security appliance manufacturer to remediate a vulnerability.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which type of layer 2 attack enables the attacker to intercept traffic that is intended for one specific recipient?
A. BPDU attack
B. DHCP Starvation
C. CAM table overflow
D. MAC address spoofing
210-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which command verifies phase 1 of an IPsec VPN on a Cisco router?
A. show crypto map
B. show crypto ipsec sa
C. show crypto isakmp sa
D. show crypto engine connection active
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?
A. Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.
B. A Web site security framework.
C. A security discussion forum for Web site developers.
D. Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
What can cause the the state table of a stateful firewall to update? (choose two)
A. when a connection is created
B. when a connection\’s timer has expired within state table
C. when packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
D. when outbound packets forwarded to outbound interface
E. when rate-limiting is applied
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally
visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router\’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router\’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall\’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
If a router configuration includes the line aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ enable, which events will occur
when the TACACS+ server returns an error? (Choose two.)
A. The user will be prompted to authenticate using the enable password
B. Authentication attempts to the router will be denied
C. Authentication will use the router`s local database
D. Authentication attempts will be sent to the TACACS+ server
210-260 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 40
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 37
A switching fabric switch port is connected to a fiber optic hub port, then see from this port fiber switch type yes.
A. G-Port
B. E-Port
C. F-Port
D. FL-Port
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
S2600 series storage arrays do not support port type ()
A. SAS host ports
B. SAS expander port
C. FC host ports
D. FC cascade port
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Import and export configuration information via the ISM, which operate under the entry of the navigation tree
A. Configuration Assistant
B. System Configuration
C. Device Information
D. Mapping
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
When installed on Windows 2003 UltraPath for Windows, in Device Manager:
A. Successful installation displays “UltraPath Device Specific Module”
B. If the installation is successful, displays “Multi-Path Support”
C. Successful installation displays “Multi-Path Device Specific Module”
D. If the installation is successful, displays “UltraPath Support”
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 41
FC protocol, FC-2 layer defines: (Choose two)
A. Coding Standards
B. Decoding standard
C. Flow Control
D. Frame Agreement
210-260 pdf Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 42
Hard disk capacity is what factors determine the size of? (Choose three)
A. Number of heads
B. Sectors
C. Number of tracks
D. Number of cylinders
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 43
All of the following are the reporting standards in government auditing EXCEPT:
A. The auditor should plan the audit in a manner which ensures that an audit of high quality is carried out in an economic, efficient, and effective way and in a timely manner.
B. It is for the SAI to which they belong to decide finally on the action to be taken in relation to fraudulent practices or serious irregularities discovered by the auditors.
C. At the end of each audit the auditor should prepare a written opinion or report, as appropriate, setting out the findings in an appropriate form; its content should be easy to understand and be independent, objective, fair, and constructive.
D. The work of the audit staff at each level and audit phase should be properly supervised during the audit; and documented work should be reviewed by a senior member of the audit staff.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 44
With regard to __________, the auditor should prepare a written report, which may either be a part of the report on the ____________ or a separate report on the tests of compliance with applicable laws and regulations. The report should contain a statement of positive assurance on those items tested for compliance and negative assurance on those items not tested:
A. Income statements, financial audits
B. Financial statements, regularity audits
C. Regularity audits, financial statements
D. operational audits, financial statements
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
The _______________ mission is to serve the public interest, strengthen the global accountancy profession, and contribute to the development of strong international economies by establishing and promoting adherence to high-quality professional standards, furthering the international convergence of such standards, and speaking out on public interest issues where the profession’s
expertise is most relevant:
A. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
B. The International Federation of Accountants (IFAC)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
D. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
Which committee of IFAC issues pronouncements aimed at developing and harmonizing public sector financial reporting, accounting, and auditing practices while “Public sector” refers to national governments, regional (state, provincial, territorial) governments, local (city, town) governments, and related governmental entities (agencies, boards, commissions, and enterprises)?
A. Advisory committee
B. Ethic’s committee
C. Public Sector Committee (PSC)
D. general rules and regulation committee
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
The auditors of public sector entities may be required to report on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. reporting to the owners
B. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities;
C. Adequacy of accounting and internal control systems;
D. Economy, efficiency, and effectiveness of programs, projects, and activities.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
All of the following are the objectives of an audit EXCEPT:
A. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities.
B. the auditor’s opinion enhances the credibility of the financial statements, the user Cannot assume that the opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the entity nor the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the entity.
C. The phrases used to express the auditor’s opinion are “give a true and fair view” or “present fairly, in all material respects,” which are equivalent terms.
D. The objective of an audit of financial statements is to enable the auditor to express an opinion whether the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with and identified financial reporting framework.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
The auditor should comply with the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants issued by the International Federation of Accountants. All of the following are the ethical principles governing the auditor’s professional responsibilities EXCEPT:
A. Independence and integrity.
B. Professional competence and due care and confidentiality.
C. Professional behavior and Technical standards.
D. No confidentiality;
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
The term _________ refers to the audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances to achieve the objective of the audit. The procedures required to conduct an audit in accordance with _________ should be determined by the auditor having regard to the requirements of ISAs, relevant professional bodies, legislation, and regulations:
A. Scope of an audit, ISAs
B. Purpose of an audit, ISAs
C. Principle of an audit, ISAs
D. Purpose of an audit, PSPs
Answer: A

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