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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-778: Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-778.aspx
Candidates for this exam should have a good understanding of how to use Power BI to perform data analysis. Candidates should be
proficient in connecting to data sources and performing data transformations, modeling and visualizing data by using Microsoft
Power BI Desktop, and configuring dashboards by using the Power BI service. Candidates should also be proficient in implementing
direct connectivity to Microsoft SQL Azure and SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS), and implementing data analysis in Microsoft Excel.
Candidates may include BI professionals, data analysts, and other roles responsible for creating reports by using Power BI.

pass4itsure 70-778 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Consuming and Transforming Data By Using Power BI Desktop
Modeling and Visualizing Data
Configure Dashboards, Reports, and Apps in the Power BI Service

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-778 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
You plan to create a Power BI report. You have the schema model shown in the exhibit. (Click the exhibit). pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q1

The model has the following relationships:
Store the District based on DistrictID
Sales to Store based on LocationID
Sales to Date based on PeriodID
Sales to Item based on ItemID
You configure row-level security (RLS) so that the district managers of the stores only see the sales from the stores they
manage.
When the district managers view the sales report, they see Sales by Items for all stores.
You need to ensure that the district managers can see Sales by items for the stores they manage only.
How should you configure the relationship from Sales to Item?
A. Change the Cardinality to One to one (1:1).
B. Change the Cardinality to One to Many (1.*).
C. Select Assume Referential Integrity.
D. Change the Cross filter direction to Both.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/guided-learning/powerbi-admin-rls/

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Sales.
Your company has 1,000 sales users. All the sales users can access Sales.
You create a report in an app workspace in the Power BI service. You embed the report into a page on the Sales site by
using the Power BI web part.
You need to ensure that all the sales can view the report from the Sales site.
What should you do?
A. Configure the app workspace for Premium capacity.
B. Enable anonymous access for the Sales site.
C. Configure the Portal Site Connection for the Sales site.
D. Disable the Embed content in apps setting from the Tenant settings in Power BI.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-embed-report-spo

QUESTION 3
You plan to use Power BI Desktop to create a report. The report will consume data from an on-premises tabular named
SalesDB in Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The report will be published to the Power BI service.
You need to ensure that the report published to the Power BI service will access the current data in SalesDB.
What should you do?
A. Deploy an on-premises data gateway and configure the connection to SalesDB to use the Import Data Connectivity
mode.
B. Deploy an on-premises data gateway and configure the connection to SalesDB to use the Connect live option.
C. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode) and configure to SalesDB to use the DirectQuery Data
Connectivity mode.
D. Deploy an on-premises data gateway and configure the connection to SalesDB to use the DirectQuery Data
Connectivity mode.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/desktop-use-directquery

QUESTION 4
You have a Power BI app named App1. The privacy for the App1 workspace is set to Private.
A user named User1 reports that App1 does not appear in the My organization AppSource. App1 appears in the My
organization AppSource for your account.
You need to ensure that User sees App1 from the My organization AppSource.
What should you do?
A. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Content settings, and then click Update app.
B. From the app workspace settings, add a member.
C. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Access setting, and then click Update app.
D. From the app workspace, share the dashboard.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-organizational-content-pack-introduction#what-is-appsource

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a dashboard in the Power BI service that retrieves data from a Microsoft SQL Server database. The
dashboard will be shared between the users in your organization.
You need to ensure that the users will see the current data when they view the dashboard.
How should you configure the connection to the data source?
A. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Import the data by using the Import Data Connectivity mode.
B. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Import the data by using the Import Data Connectivity mode.
C. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Import the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.
D. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Import the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity
mode.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/desktop-directquery-about#power-bi-connectivity-modes

QUESTION 6
You create a report in the Power BI service that displays the following visualizations:
A KPI that displays the count of customers
A table that displays the count of customers by country A line chart that displays the count of customers by year
You need to receive an alert when the total number of customers reaches 10,000.
What should you do first?
A. Pin the line chart to a dashboard.
B. Pin the KPI to a dashboard.
C. Embed the report into a Microsoft SharePoint page.
D. Pin the report to a dashboard.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an app workspace that contains a report. The report contains sensitive data.
You need to ensure that you can embed the report into a custom application that will be accessed by external users.
The external users will NOT have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory user account or Power BI licenses.
Solution: Purchase Power BI Premium P1, and then configure the app workspace to run in a dedicated capacity.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/developer/embed-sample-for-customers

QUESTION 8
From Power BI Desktop, you create a query that imports the following table.

pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q8

You need to configure the table to appear as shown in the following table.

pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q8-1

What should you do?
A. From the Extract menu, click Last Characters.
B. From the Extract menu, click Text After Delimiter.
C. From the Format menu, click Trim.
D. From the Split Column menu, click BY Delimiter.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt798301.aspx

QUESTION 9
You plan to embed multiple visualization in a public website.
Your Power BI infrastructure contains the visualizations configured as shown in the following table. pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q9

Which two visualizations can you embed into the website? Each correct answer presents a complete the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Visual1
B. Visual2
C. Visual3
D. Visual4
E. Visual5
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-publish-to-web

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. For your convenience, the
scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the
scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that has the tables shown in the Database Diagram exhibit. (Click the
Exhibit.) pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q10

You plan to develop a Power BI model as shown in the Power BI Model exhibit. (Click the Exhibit).

pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q10-1

You plan to use Power BI to import data from 2013 to 2015.
Product Subcategory [Subcategory] contains NULL values.
End of repeated scenario.
You implement the Power BI model.
You add another table named Territory to the model. A sample of the data is shown in the following table.

pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q10-2

You need to create a relationship between the Territory table and the Sales table.
Which function should you use in the query for Territory before you create the relationship?
A. Table.RemoveMatchingRows
B. Table.Distinct
C. Table.InDistinct
D. Table.ReplaceMatchingRows
Correct Answer: B
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt260775.aspx

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
the
same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that contains the following tables. pass4itsure 70-778 exam question q11

The following columns contain date information:
Date[Month] in the mmyyyy format
Date[Date_ID] in the ddmmyyyy format
Date[Date_name] in the mm/dd/yyyy format
Monthly_returns[Month_ID] in the mmyyyy format
The Order table contains more than one million rows.
The Store table has a relationship to the Monthly_returns table on the StoreJD column. This is the only relationship
between the tables.
You plan to use Power B! Desktop to create an analytics solution for the data.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to create a chart that displays a sum of Order[Order_amount] by month for the Order_ship_date column and
the Order_date column.
How should you model the data?
A. Add a second Date table named Ship_date to the model. Create a many-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to
Order [Order_date] and a many-to-many relationship from Ship_date[DateJD] to Order[Order_ship_date].
B. Add a second Date table named Ship_date to the model. Create a one-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to
Order [Order_date] and a one-to-many relationship from Ship_date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_ship_dateJ.
C. Create a one-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_date] and another relationship from
Date[Date_ID] to Monthly_returns[Date_IDJ.
D. Create a one-to-many relationship from Date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_date] and another relationship from
Date[Date_ID] to Order[Order_ship_date].
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You plan to use Power BI Embedded to deliver reports in a web application.
You need to ensure that the reports display live data.
Which data source you should use?
A. Microsoft Azure Data Lake Store
B. Microsoft Azure Table Storage
C. Microsoft Azure HDInsight
D. Microsoft Azure SQL Database
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-azure-sql-database-with-direct-connect

QUESTION 13
A data analyst publishes several Power BI visualizations to a blog. You discover that some of the visualizations contain
data that is considered private by your company.
You need to prevent the visualizations from being published to the blog.
What should you do?
A. From the Power BI Admin portal, disable the Publish to web setting.
B. From the Power BI settings, delete the embedded codes.
C. From the Power BI Admin portal, disable the Share content with external users setting.
D. From the dashboard settings, modify the Share dashboard settings.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-publish-to-web

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Latest effective Cisco 700-802 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
What does Cisco Connected Factory Wireless primarily help customers to do?
A. Budget money.
B. Save money.
C. Make money.
D. Be safer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are the three horizontal Cisco Internet of Things solutions in manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. connected factory applications
B. routers
C. connected factory security
D. device connectors
E. converged network platforms
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
What does Cisco Connected Factory Security primarily help customers to do?
A. Make money.
B. Save money.
C. Be safer.
D. Budget money.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which zone does Cisco Connected Factory Security help to protect the manufacturing environment?
A. logistics network
B. danger zone
C. area control zone
D. demilitarized zone
E. enterprise business applications zone
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In which two ways can you start conversations with Facilities Managers? (Choose two.)
A. Talk about percent of energy coverage.
B. Talk about reducing energy usage and peak charges.
C. Talk about reducing downtime.
D. Talk about thwarting attacks and security breaches.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Opportunities to sell the Internet of Things usually exist around an event. Which three customer initiatives
signal an loT opportunity? (Choose three.)A. building a new plant
B. implementing new employee benefits
C. upgrading or replacing automation systems
D. replacing a machine on the manufacturing line
E. expanding an existing production facility
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
In which manufacturing business domains are Connected Factory solutions implemented?
A. cell/area zone, factory zone, machine zone
B. cell/area zone, plant, demilitarized zone, enterprise zone
C. plant, jump zone, demilitarized zone
D. plant, jump zone, demilitarized zone, danger zone
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
In which two ways can you start conversations with an Automation Controls Director? (Choose two.)
A. Talk about thwarting attacks and security breaches.
B. Talk about the desire to reduce cabinets.
C. Talk about worker safety.
D. Talk about reducing downtime with network and device visibility.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which four actions are included in the next steps to talk to customers about Cisco Internet of Things
solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Ask for recommendations.
B. Talk to the customer’s team.
C. Identify customer project locations and sell to them.
D. Build a business case.
E. Discuss a discovery workshop.
F. Perform a proof of concept.
Correct Answer: ACDF

QUESTION 10
Secure production access is an important success metric for Plant IT Directors. In the Internet of Things,
which four options achieve secure production access? (Choose four.)
A. increased uptime
B. reduced IP theft
C. risk reduction
D. reduced downtime
E. increased safety
F. faster new product introduction
Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 11
Which four outcomes does Factory Automation bring to manufacturing customers? (Choose four.)A. 20% reduction in loss and scrap
B. predictive analytics for maintenance and operations increasing uptime
C. 75% decrease in downtime
D. lower factory installation costs
E. real-time visibility into production data
F. rapid fault isolation and troubleshooting
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 12
Which option is an important benefit of converged network platforms that enables other benefits?
A. increased productivity
B. real-time visibility
C. reduced downtime
D. safer environment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which four options are overarching categories of physical hardware within the product structure? (Choose
four.)
A. plant routing
B. JouleX
C. field network
D. plant switching
E. IP cameras
F. connected safety and security
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 14
Which three solution elements were deployed in the tractor manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. IP cameras
B. AeroScout T2 tags
C. mounted exciters
D. MobileView software
E. RockWell automation
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
The Internet of Things is described as the driver for the fourth industrial revolution. Which three options are
important drivers of this revolution? (Choose three.)
A. Manufacturers are consolidating factories.
B. Factories are growing off-shore.
C. Companies are moving toward robotic advancements.
D. Companies are turning toward Ethernet.
E. Manufacturers are moving to big data for answers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 16
Specific company characteristics signal opportunities to sell the Cisco Internet of Things. Which three
characteristics indicate such an opportunity? (Choose three.)
A. security concerns
B. a slow-moving company
C. an IT preference for Cisco
D. a focus on green energy_______________________
E. a move to wireless manufacturing, Ethernet I/O, predictive maintenance, or other new models
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 17
Which three challenges did the company face in the motorcycle manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. deploy wireless for instant visibility
B. accelerate new product introduction
C. implement flexible manufacturing
D. reduce plant downtime
E. reduce product theft
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Sprint planning should result in a commitment on what will be delivered at the end of the Sprint.
Who makes this commitment?
A. The Product Owner
B. The Scrum Master
C. The team
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A team is estimating story points. They estimate that the story falls between a large (13) and a medium (5) and they assign a story point of 8.
What is this technique called?
A. Affinity estimation
B. Fibonacci estimation
C. Triangulation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which Scrum ritual is meant to look back and improve upon the finished Sprint?
A. Daily Scrum.
B. Sprint Retrospective.
C. Sprint Review.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is meant by the velocity of the team?
A. The rate a team puts in a normal work day.
B. The rate at which features are released to the customer.
C. The rate at which the team completes the work.
D. The rate at which the team renews itself.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is a Sprint?
A. A brainstorming session in Extreme programming to generate design ideas.
B. A race between two developers to see who can complete a feature fastest.
C. One iteration in the Scrum methodology.
D. The last iteration in the Scrum project, when the team works long hours to finish the project.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is the primary responsibility of a Scrum Master in order to keep a Scrum team working at its peak level of productivity?
A. Keeping high priority features at the top of the Product Backlog.
B. Not allowing changes to the Product Backlog once the Sprint begins.
C. Supporting the team’s decisions and resolving the team’s issues.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How does Agile bring predictability to the Planning process?
A. By allowing the customers to review the progress often.
B. By assigning most of the responsibility to the Product Owner.
C. By making the team self-organized and self-planning.
D. By providing early visibility into the team’s progress.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
During the release planning meeting, it is difficult to agree on priorities.
Sales want to implement some new features to catch up with the competitors.
Marketing want to work on a mobile interface that can prove to be a competitive differentiator. Customer support want better logging and auditing capabilities to
improve maintainability.
What should be done to set the priorities?
A. Approach Senior Management and ask for priorities.
B. Survey the existing customers and prioritize according to their views.
C. The Product Owner will set the priorities.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
How should ‘done’ be defined when multiple teams are working on a single product?
A. All teams must have the same definition of ‘done’.
B. Each team must define and use their own definition of ‘done’.
C. The Scrum Master defines when the item is ‘done’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Near the end of a Sprint, the team realizes that they will not be able to complete the stories they had committed to.
What is the best course of action for the team?
A. Add resources and team members to meet the goals of the current Sprint.
B. Ask the Product Owner to decide which stories can be delayed until the next Sprint.
C. Decide on a new definition of ‘done’ for the Sprint Backlog Items.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is an “escaped defect”?
A. A defect that was found by the customer.
B. A defect that was planned to be fixed, but not fixed in a Sprint.
C. A defect the Continuous Integration System failed to catch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
According to Agile principles, what should be the pace of development?
A. Fast
B. Increasing
C. Sustainable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The Product Owner is going on a three-week vacation. The team should be closing the current Sprint and starting a new Sprint at the end of the first week of the
Product Owner’s vacation.
What is the best way to continue the Scrum rituals in this situation?
A. Each Scrum team should ideally have two Product Owners to provide cover.
B. The Product Owner should be requested to delay his vacation by a week.
C. The Scrum Master should take over and cover for the Product Owner.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Project Manager wants to track not just the rate of progress against tasks, but also the overall morale and happiness of the Scrum team.
What device will help track morale and happiness?
A. A Gross Happiness index
B. A Niko-niko calendar
C. An employee satisfaction survey
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
When is a Sprint complete?
A. When all of the Product Backlog items are completed.
B. When all the tasks in the Sprint Backlog are completed.
C. When the Sprint defined time box ends.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
What message can you give to a customer about a key benefit of using Scrum?
A. Scrum will give customers more control over day-to-day activities.
B. Scrum will help the team accept changes into the project at no additional cost.
C. The team will show a demonstration of working software every few weeks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A Manager requests to attend the daily stand-up meeting so that he can be more responsive to the team by being aware of the team’s progress and issues.
As the Scrum Master, what should you do?
A. Allow the Product Owner to participate in ‘listen only’ mode.
B. Allow the Product Owner to participate like any other team member.C. Turn down the request as the daily stand-up is only for the team.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the usual length of the time box for the complete Sprint Planning meeting?
A. Four hours for a 30 day Sprint, one to two hours for a shorter Sprint.
B. However long it takes to complete the Sprint Backlog.
C. Never more than two hours, regardless of Sprint length.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What is time-boxing?
A. A period of intense activity within a particular release.
B. Setting an upper time limit and planning the activities within that limit.
C. Tight planning focused on reducing the time required for any activity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What is a characteristic of a well-designed Agile work space?
A. It has a silent zone to facilitate concentration.
B. There is enough space for information radiators.
C. Work stations are personalized for team members.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A large product team features six different teams having ten members each, working on a project that involves four high level features.
How many Product Backlogs should the team have?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
What is an information radiator?
A. A physical display for the team that gives information about the current status.
B. A tool that automatically sends relevant information to the Product Owner.
C. A status report or dashboard that is maintained by the Scrum Master.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A Scrum team failed to meet the Sprint objectives. One of the key members of the team fell ill and was away for two days right at the beginning of the four week
Sprint.
What is the most likely reason that the team did not meet the Sprint objectives?
A. The Product Owner is unable to prioritize.
B. The team is lacking skills.
C. The team did not plan the Sprint effectively.
D. The team is over-worked.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
A 200 member project team is working on a large and complex system with multiple sub- systems. They would like to start using the Agile Scrum methodology.
As a Scrum Master, what would your best advice be?
A. Scrum is not suited for such a large project. The team should clearly use the Waterfall method or the Crystal Clear method.
B. Ask all potential members of the project team to have a meeting first and decide if they agree to use Scrum.
C. Agree a logical sub-division of the system so that smaller Scrum teams can work on sub- systems and can add tangible value.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A team estimates a Story using the Planning Poker technique. The team decides to allocate five Story points to the Story, because the Developers estimated two
points and the Testers estimated three points.
Which statement is true regarding this scenario?
A. Points are assigned by the Scrum Master, not by the team.
B. Points are assigned for the overall Story, not for parts of the Story.
C. Points are never estimated, but always determined beforehand.
D. The team forgets to ask the Product Owner about the estimate.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Why does the Daily Scrum need to be held at the same location and time?
A. The booking of a room needs to be done in advance for the duration of the Sprint.
B. The constant time and place is best for continuity of the Scrum framework.
C. The Project Manager needs to get the status updates at a given time every day.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is a Scrum-of-Scrums?
A. A meeting for management to get insight into the working of teams.
B. A meeting for Scrum Masters of international Scrum teams.
C. A meeting to coordinate the work of multiple Scrum teams.
D. A meeting to show the customer an update of the product.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Why is planning poker an effective estimation technique?
A. It generates a lot of useful discussion and gets team buy-in.
B. It results in lower estimates as team members will estimate individually.
C. It triggers a more detailed and task oriented break-up of the story.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A team decided to install a large traffic light in the team hall to indicate whether the latest build was healthy (green), failing a few tests (orange) or failing high
priority tests (red).
What term can be used to describe the traffic light?
A. Information radiator
B. Osmotic communication
C. Triangulation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which is a statement of value as described in the Agile manifesto?
A. We value customer collaboration over responding to changes.
B. We value project management over individuals and interactions.
C. We value processes and tools over comprehensive documentation.
D. We value responding to change to satisfy the customer.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
During a Sprint Planning session, the team argues about the work estimates for a particular story.
The Product Owner estimates five days.
The Lead Architect estimates two days.
The Scrum Master estimates eight days.
The team member working on it estimates seven days.
What value (in days) should be used for planning?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
From which sport is the term “Scrum” and much of the terminology derived?
A. Kick boxing
B. Polo
C. Rugby
D. Soccer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A team is trying to convince a customer about the value of adopting Scrum. The customer likes some of the features of the methodology like the bi-weekly
demonstration, but the customer remains largely unconvinced of the value of Scrum and refuses to change the way of working,
What should the team do?
A. Let the Scrum Master ‘translate’ to Waterfall practices.
B. Use Scrum and convince the customer during the process.
C. Do not follow Scrum until the customer is convinced of the value.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
The team determines that it has over-committed itself for a Sprint.
Who should be present when reviewing and adjusting the Sprint work?
A. The team, the Scrum Master and the Product Owner. The Stakeholders should be consulted.
B. The team and the Scrum Master. The Product Owner should be consulted.
C. The team only. The Product Owner should be consulted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Why are estimates expressed in terms of story points difficult to explain outside of the team?
A. It requires a comparison to a benchmark, which typically varies from team to team.
B. It requires a deeper understanding of the technical approach to implement each story.
C. It requires breaking the stories down into Sprint Backlog Items, which only the team can do.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is the difference between a varifocal lens and a zoom lens?
A. A zoom lens maintains focus when changing field of view
B. A varifocal lens has a longer field of view
C. A zoom lens always has automatic focus
D. There is no difference
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Audio detection can be used
A. Only with cameras with built in microphone.
B. In all Axis cameras but an extra intelligent video (IV) module is necessary.
C. Only in quiet areas.
D. For detecting a change in decibel levels.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Media Control
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A customer wants his video surveillance system to completely cover the perimeter of his property. For the installer to
ensure that the camera system is not subject to sabotage, he should
A. Install more low-priced cameras to cover the complete site.
B. Make sure each camera is seen by at least one other camera.
C. Use PoE, and not a PoE splitter.
D. Install thermal cameras.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer\’s technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer\’s goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
If image clarity changes are made within the camera web interface, but are not reflected within a Video Management
Software (VMS), what is the most likely cause of the camera not accepting the settings?
A. The camera is faulty and needs to be replaced
B. The VMS is overwriting the changes in the camera
C. The camera\’s advanced settings need to be changed first
D. The user does not have administrative rights to change the settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A P-iris lens is
A. An iris with higher light sensitivity.
B. Axis\’ standard for DC-iris.
C. A DC-iris with feedback.
D. An iris specially made for zoom lenses.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Who should be responsible for documenting a video surveillance installation?
A. The camera manufacturer
B. The customer\’s security manager
C. The customer\’s IT department
D. The integrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following general statements about illumination needs of PTZ cameras is true?
A. PTZ should not be used with IR light
B. The f-stop value of a lens will get higher if you zoom in
C. PTZ cameras in general tend to have lower f-stop value compared to fixed cameras
D. PTZ cameras should not be used with mixed IR and white light
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Why is it recommended to make a list of the Axis network video product serial numbers in an installation?
A. It provides an overview of what equipment has been used
B. The product name can be found inside the serial number
C. It make it is easier to identify the camera in AXIS Camera Management
D. It gives the status of the camera or encoder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A varifocal lens
A. Makes it possible to adjust the focal length like a zoom lens, but requires refocusing after adjusting the focal length.
B. Allows the depth of field to be adjusted, making it possible to blur out the background for privacy protection or
reducing distraction.
C. Can rapidly change focus between a set of predefined positions, making it easy to move between different points of
interest in the scene.
D. Is a lens where the focus can be adjusted, as opposed to a fixed focus lens, making it possible to focus on objectsclose to the camera.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true for broadcast network traffic?
A. Broadcast is designed to enable optimized video transmission, since it tolerates network dropouts
B. Broadcast is not practical for network video transmission, since packets are transmitted to every device on the
network
C. Broadcast is a method for sending video to many recipients over the internet even though their bandwidths vary
D. Broadcast data packet length is longer than normal Ethernet packets, to accommodate a full video frame
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A customer has strict requirements of 30 fps for recorded video. Which encoder choice would they select if they wanted
three streams, per every one encoded channel, of D1 resolution video run at 30 fps in H.264?
A. AXISM7210
B. AXISP7210
C. AXISP7214
D. AXISQ7406
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:
A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate
C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A convenience store needs a camera to cover the entrance. Identification is needed at 80 pixels per face. Given that the
scene is 2 m (6 ft 7 in) wide, which of these resolutions is the minimum one needed?
A. 640X480
B. 800 X 600
C. 1280 X 720
D. 1920 X 1080
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there\’s any way to get more of the aisle and less of the shelves on
the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best suggestion to the retailer?
A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm
B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm
C. Using Axis\’ Corridor Format
D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A camera lens with a low f-stop value of 1.2 will outperform a lens with a higher f- stop value due to which one of the
parameters below?
A. Better depth of field
B. Better low light capability
C. Improved sharpness
D. Less image artifacts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Where is the best place to mount a camera with a fixed iris?
A. Outside, on a pole
B. Inside, in a room with large windows C. Outside, in a shadowed position
D. Inside, in a room with very strong light sources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be securely viewed
off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users disconnect
cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that malicious users will
intercept it
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
An installation with an AXIS P1344 experiences image flickering. How can this be remedied?
A. Adding white light to the scene
B. Adding IR light to the scene
C. Changing the camera\’s exposure setting
D. Changing the camera\’s white balance
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
What are the effects of changing the capture mode on an AXIS P1346 from 2048×1536 (3 MP) to 1920×1080 (HDTV)?
(Choose two)
A. Minimum illumination decreases
B. Vertical angle of view decreases
C. Maximum frame rate decreases
D. Maximum frame rate increases
E. Motion blur increases
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
If using H.264 compression, in theory, what could a video containing no l-frames look like? A. The first P-frame is visible during the whole video
B. A black image is visible during the whole video
C. All moving objects will be visible
D. All non-moving objects will be visible
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A VPN
A. Is required to enable viewing network surveillance video on mobile devices.
B. Is a network specially optimized to handle video data packets.
C. Creates a secure tunnel through the network, where your information travels encrypted.
D. Translates domain names to IP addresses, according to the IPv4 standard.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Focusing a camera improves the image, but it also
A. Has an effect on the frame rate
B. Increases the bandwidth
C. Changes the pixel resolution
D. Decreases the bandwidth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which feature in Axis cameras allows for a fixed box style camera to tell a PTZ camera to move to a preset?
A. HTTP server
B. QoS
C. FTP server
D. TCP/IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
An installer wants to connect and power a P|R sensor from an Axis camera\’s I/O port. What would be the output DC
voltage? A. 1, 5V
B. 3. 3 V
C. 5V
D. 7 V
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
After an installer sets up a motion detection window they then zoom out the camera. How will this affect the camera\’s
ability to detect motion if no settings are changed?
A. More pixels are needed to change to trigger motion detection
B. Less pixels are needed to change to trigger motion detection
C. More movement needed to change to trigger motion detection
D. Less movement needed to change to trigger motion detection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
The first time an Axis camera\’s Live View is accessed the user is prompted to do which of the following?
A. Configure a root password
B. Select a resolution
C. Enter a camera name
D. Assign IP address
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: IP Routing Technologies
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA. Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?

A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.
B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA.
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?

A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 200-101 Exam Question Answer

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What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
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D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Answer: A, C, F

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?

A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 210-260 vce
QUESTION 6
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16 D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application

Answer: E
QUESTION 7
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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A. Use the Internet to find a complete, ready-made lesson to use with the students.
B. Use the Internet to find teaching resources to discuss with the students.
C. Use spell check software to improve your lesson plan.
D. Scan sections of the class textbook to use as reference.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You plan to lead a class discussion about the persuasive writing examples that the students bring in and to display the examples to the entire class. Which two ICT resources should you use to achieve this task? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a flatbed scanner
B. a data projector
C. a monochrome laser printer
D. a digital camera
62-193 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
You want to identify the primary benefit of using ICT during the persuasive writing lesson. Which benefit should you identify? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. In today’s world, writing is mostly done on a computer.
B. ICT helps students develop word processing skills.
C. The computer lab is used regularly.
D. Word processing applications allow students to easily edit and modify text.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You want the students to collect information from organizations that they find on the Internet. Which instructions or advice should you provide to the students? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the information sent to the student’s home e-mail address.
B. Only request information from organizations that have a secure Web site.
C. Have the information sent to the school’s e-mail address.
D. Only request information from organizations that have a Web site that requires registration.
62-193 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
One of your students has poor hearing. You want to ensure that the student has the opportunity to interact with the farmer during the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. After the video-conference, have the other students explain the key points of the conference to the student.
B. Before the video-conference, have the student submit questions in writing.
C. Manipulate the seating arrangement.
D. Record the audio portion of the video-conference for further listening.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You want to address the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT) policy goals by using the school’s limited ICT resources. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Ask the students to use their computers at home.
B. Have the students work in collaborative groups.
C. Ask the students to use their mobile devices.
D. Have the more confident students use the computers while the other students observe them.
62-193 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your class just completed the video-conference with the farmer. You want to do a quick assessment to identify how many students understood the key points of the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the students use the student response system.
B. Have the students work in pairs to create a blog.
C. Have each student write an essay by using a word processing application.
D. Have each student design a presentation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You teach an economics lesson about the effects of using price discount strategies. During the class, you provide detailed sales statistics from a major national retailer. Some of the students question the effectiveness of price discount strategies. You want to demonstrate to the students that the strategies are cost-effective. What should you do?
A. Search the Internet for Web sites that contain more information about retail pricing strategies.
B. Enter sample sales figures into a spreadsheet to model the effects of using price discountstrategies.
C. Search the Internet for teaching resources on retail pricing strategies.
D. Email several retail management experts and ask them for examples of how they use price discountstrategies.
62-193 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You want to improve the students’ research skills by using ICT resources. The solution must help meet the school’s organizational goals. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Tell the students to search for information on the Internet.
B. Give the students a list of Internet links to sites about acid rain.
C. Give the students printed Web pages about acid rain.
D. Work with the students to create a list of search terms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You have used Information and Communication Technology (ICT) successfully in the classroom for several years. A new teacher at the school says that she has had little opportunity to use ICT in the classroom. She wants to make use of the computer lab in her teaching. What advice would you give her?
A. Ensure that the planned activities are easy for the students.
B. Ensure that the planned activities are fun for the students.
C. Ensure that the planned activities are suitable for the learning objectives.
D. Ensure that the students understand how ICT will be used to complete their activities.
62-193 pdf Correct Answer: C

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[2018-May New] New Updated Cisco 700-070 Dumps PDF Cisco TelePresence Solutions Specialist Exam Actual Test Online 50Q Free Share (21-30)

Posted on May 17, 2018 by passexam

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QUESTION 1
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
700-070 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
Which infrastructure component is needed for OBTP?
A. Prime Collaboration
B. Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco TelePresence System
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two options are available through the participant icon? (Choose two.)
A. List all missed calls.
B. Drop a caller from the call.
C. List all participants who were dropped from the call.
D. List all participants on the call.
E. Add a caller to the call.
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
How can you change presentation display options during a call?
A. Open the share tray and drag the presentation to the desired location.
B. Open the share tray and assign display numbers to each presentation.
C. Open the system settings and reconfigure the display options.
D. Open the participant list and drag the presentation to the desired location.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two actions are part of the Display Connection step during endpoint configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Determine the screen resolution.
B. Register the endpoint to Unified Communications Manager.
C. Perform an internal display cabling check.
D. Determine the system layout display on Touch 10.
E. Register the endpoint to the Cisco VCS.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which installation key for the IX5000 is required for IX5000 infrastructure configuration?
A. Cisco TMS
B. Cisco VCS
C. Unified Communication Manager
D. TelePresence MCU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options to be noted during infrastructure configuration? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. number of screens
D. serial number
E. number of rows
700-070 vce Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which device is a component of the IX5000?
A. ceiling-mounted microphone array
B. triple 4K UHD camera cluster
C. acoustic ceiling tile
D. Touch 8 user interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Where can you find presentation statistics in a point-to-point IX5000 call?
A. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General
B. Monitoring > Call Statistics > Audio Only
C. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Video
D. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Audio
700-070 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which step is required during pre-installation of the IX5000?
A. Hang celling lights.
B. Install wall panels.
C. Verify that the room floor is level.
D. Verify that appropriate licenses, upgrades, and tools are available.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Where can you find the results for noise-level and reverberation tests?
A. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Reports
B. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Log Files
C. Admin GUI > Logs > Reports
D. Admin GUI > Reports > Log Files
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the room power requirements?
A. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
B. 0.95 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
C. 0.95kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
D. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What causes echo or reverberation in the room during a call?
A. too many acoustic panels
B. too many hard surfaces
C. too many people
D. too many devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is the purpose of the IX5000?
A. immersive collaboration
B. mobile-device use
C. desktop use
D. home use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
700-070 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 19
Which two standards does the IX5000 codec support? (Choose two.)
A. H.324
B. H.320
C. H.265
D. G.729AB
E. G.728
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
How many hours does the initial camera setup typically require?
A. 3 to 4
B. 2 to 3
C. 1 to 2
D. less than 1
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which device type is correct for the IX5200?
A. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (9 seats)
B. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (18 seats)
C. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (9 seats)
D. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (18 seats)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23
What is the maximum image resolution of the 4K UHD camera display in the IX5000?
A. 1080p60
B. 1280p60
C. 1080p30
D. 720p30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which action should you take during recabling?
A. Disconnect power.
B. Hot-swap cables.
C. Connect power.
D. Use cables interchangeably.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
700-070 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What should you do first when Self View display issues occur?
A. Close and re-open Self View.
B. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
C. Close and re-open the share tray.
D. Power-cycle the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What is the proper order of steps for installing an IX5000?
A. Perform cable routing, install display frames, install tabletops, and install the codec.
B. Install tabletops, perform cable routing, install display frames, and install the codec.
C. Install display frames, install the codec, perform cable routing, and install tabletops.
D. Install display frames, install tabletops, perform cable routing, and install the codec.
700-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
How many presentations can be shared in a direct IX5000-to-IX5000 call?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
If a single microphone fails, you should first test cabling between which two points?
A. the TDM and the codec
B. the microphone bar and the Touch 10
C. the microphone bar and the codec
D. the microphone bar and the TDM
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Where can you find packet-transmission statistics?
A. Monitoring > Maintenance
B. Monitoring > Network Data
C. Monitoring > Statistics
D. Monitoring > Call Info
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
What is the minimum required number of people to install an IX5000 in one day?
A. three
B. four
C. two
D. one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What should you do first when the local Touch 10 falsely indicates that content is being shared?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
What should you do first when a display shows a black screen instead of presentation content after hot
swapping cables?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Where is the option to choose OBTP?
A. Booking > Basic Settings> New Conference
B. New Conference > Booking > Basic Settings > Type
C. Booking > New Conference > Basic Settings > Type
D. Basic Settings > New Conference > Booking
700-070 exam Correct Answer: C

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[2018-April New] Prepare for Real Microsoft 70-647 Dumps PDF Windows Server 2012 Exam Video Training 328Q Free Share (1-10)

Posted on April 25, 2018 by passexam

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QUESTION 1
Your network consists of one Active directory domain. The functional level of the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company has three departments named Sales, Marketing, and Engineering. All users in the domain are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllUsers. You have three custom applications. You deploy all custom applications by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named AppInstall. The Sales department purchases a new application that is only licensed for use by the Sales department. You need to recommend a solution to simplify the distribution of the new application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The application must only be distributed to licensed users. ?The amount of administrative effort required to manage the users must remain unaffected. The three custom applications must be distributed to all existing and new users on the network.
What should you recommend?
A. Create a new child domain for each department and link the AppInstall GPO to each child domain. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales domain.
B. Create a new child OU for each department. Link the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing OU and the Engineering OU. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales OU.
C. Create a new group for each department and filter the AppInstall GPO to each group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
D. Create a new group for each department. Filter the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing group and the Engineering group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To ensure that the other applications are distributed to all existing and new users on the network, you need to create a new group for each department and filter the InstallApp GPO to each group. Filtering allows you to target only specific computers or users. You can create and modify multiple preference items within each GPO, and you can filter each preference item to target only specific computers or users. Finally to simplify the distribution of the licensed application to the users of
the sales department, you need to create and link a new GPO to the domain and filter the new GPO to the Sales group. You should not filter the InstallApp GPO to the Marketing group and the Development groups only because all the other applications beside the licensed
application need to be installed to the Sales department also.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2 and client computers that run Windows 7. All network routers support IPsec connections. Client computers and servers use IPsec to connect through network routers. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) installed and is configured as a certification authority (CA). Server2 runs Internet Information Services (IIS). You need to recommend a certificate solution for the network routers. The solution must meet the following requirements Use the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP).Enable the routers to automatically request certificates. What should you recommend implementing?
A. Certification authority Web enrollment services on Server2
B. Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2
C. Online Responder service on Server1
D. Subordinate CA on Server1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To recommend a certificate solution for the network routers that would enable the routers to automatically request certificates and that would use Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP), you need to implement Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2. The Network Device Enrollment Service allows routers and other network devices to obtain certificates based on the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP) from Cisco Systems Inc.
Reference: Windows Server Active Directory Certificate Services Step-by-Step Guide/ AD CS Technology Review

QUESTION 3
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. Your company uses a firewall to connect to the Internet. Inbound TCP/IP port 443 is allowed on the firewall. You have terminal servers on the internal network. You have one server on the internal network that has Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) deployed. All servers run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway. What should you recommend?
A. Change the firewall rules to permit traffic through port 3389 from the Internet.
B. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Web Access (TS Web Access) services role.
C. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker) services role.
D. Create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP).
70-647 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway, you need to create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). TS CAPs allow you to specify who can connect to a TS Gateway server. Users are granted access to a TS Gateway server if they meet the conditions specified in the TS CAP. You must also create a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). A TS RAP allows you to specify the internal network resources that users can connect to through TS Gateway. Until you create
both a TS CAP and a TS RAP, users cannot connect to internal network resources through this TS Gateway server. Reference: Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) / Why are TS CAPs important?

QUESTION 4
Your network consists of one Active Directory forest that contains one root domain and 22 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run the DNS Server service and host Active Directory-integrated zones. Administrators report that it takes more than one hour to restart the DNS servers. You need to reduce the time it takes to restart the DNS servers. What should you do?
A. Upgrade all domain controllers to Windows Server 2008.
B. Upgrade all domain controllers in the root domain to Windows Server 2008, and then set the functional level for the root domain to Windows Server 2008.
C. Deploy new secondary zones on additional servers in each child domain.
D. Change the Active Directory-integrated DNS zones to standard primary zones.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Sometime DNS server can take an hour or more in companies that have extremely large zones and the DNS data of the company is stored in AD DS. The result is that the DNS server is effectively unavailable to service client requests for the entire time that it takes to load AD DS- based zones. The problem can be solved by upgrading the domain controllers to Windows Server 2008. This is because a DNS server running Windows Server 2008 now loads zone data from AD DS in the background while it restarts so that it can respond to requests for data from other zones.
Reference: DNS Server Role/ Background zone loading

QUESTION 5
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You have file servers that run Windows Server 2008. Client computers run Windows Vista and UNIX-based operating systems. All users have both Active Directory user accounts and UNIX realm user accounts. Both environments follow identical user naming conventions. You need to provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Users must only log on once to access all resources. ?No additional client software must be installed on UNIX-based client computers. What should you do?
A. Create a realm trust so that the Active Directory domain trusts the UNIX realm.
B. Install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
C. Enable the subsystem for UNIX-based applications on the file servers. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the client computers.
D. Enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers.
70-647 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers, you need to enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping and also enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers. User Name Mapping (UNM) bridges the gap between the different user identification used in Windows and UNIX worlds. When UNM is used it in conjunction with Server for NFS, UNM authenticates the incoming NFS access requests. With Client for NFS, it determines the effective UID and GID to be sent with the NFS requests to UNIX NFS servers.

QUESTION 6
Your Company has a main office and 10 branch offices. The network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are located in the main office. Each branch office contains one member server. Branch office administrators in each branch office are assigned the necessary rights to administer only their member servers.
You deploy one read-only domain controller (RODC) in each branch office.
You need to recommend a security solution for the branch office Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Branch office administrators must be granted rights on their local domain controller only. ?Branch office administrators must be able to administer the domain controller in their branch office. This includes changing device drivers and running Windows updates. What should you recommend?
A. Add each branch office administrator to the Administrators group of the domain.
B. Add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller.
C. Grant each branch office administrator Full Control permission on their domain controller computer object in Active Directory.
D. Move each branch office domain controller computer object to a new organizational unit (OU). Grant each local administrator Full Control permission on the
new OU.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To allow branch office administrators to manage their local domain controller only, change device drivers, and run Windows updates, you need to add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller. The users of Local administrator group have administrative rights on their local domain controllers to manage several machines to perform all necessary administrative tasks but they have restricted rights as compared to domain administrators.
Reference: Adding a group to the local administrators group

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-647 dumps
The Bridge all site links option is enabled.
You need to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in only the hub sites. The solution must ensure that domain controllers can replicate if a server fails in one of the hub sites.
What should you do?
A. Lower the site link costs between the spoke sites and the hub sites.
B. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Create site link bridges that include the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites.
C. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Install a writable domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in each hub site.
D. Enable the global catalog server attribute for all domain controllers in the hub sites. Upgrade all domain controllers in the spoke sites to Windows Server 2008.
70-647 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, all site links are bridged so that all the sites that are not connected by an explicit site link can communicate directly, through a chain of intermediary site links and sites. However, if you want to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites do not replicate with other spoke sites when a server fails in one of the hub sites, you need to disable the Bridge all site links option. You need to then create site link bridges to create the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in the hub sites.
Reference: Configuring site link bridges

QUESTION 8
Your company has 5,000 users. The network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a collaboration solution for the users to
meet the following requirements:
Support tracking of document version history.
Enable shared access to documents created in Microsoft Office. Enable shared access to documents created by using Web pages.
The solution must be achieved without requiring any additional costs. What should you recommend?
A. Install servers that run the Web Server role.
B. Install servers that run the Application Server role.
C. Install servers that run Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
D. Install servers that run Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) 2007.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To achieve the desired results without requiring any additional cost, you need to use Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
Reference: Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 and the Mobile Workplace

QUESTION 9
Your Company has 10 offices. Each office has 10 domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008. The network consists of one Active directory domain. Each office has a local administrator. You use domain-level Group Policy objects (GPO). Office administrators have the necessary permissions to create and link domain-level Group Policy objects. You create custom Administrative Template (.admx) files locally on a computer that runs Windows Vista. You need to implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to the .admx files from
each office. The solution must ensure that .admx files remain identical across the company. What should you do?
A. In the domain, create a central store. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
B. In each office, create a central store on a file server. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
C. Create a GPO and link it to the domain. Add the .admx files to the GPO.
D. Create a GPO and link it to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU). Add the custom .admx files to the GPO.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to these files from each office and to ensure that the .admx files remain identical across the company, you need to create a central store in the domain and copy the custom .admx files to the central store. The central store for ADMX files allows all local administrators to edit domain-based GPOs to access the same set of ADMX files. When a central store is created, the Group Policy tools will use the ADMX files only in the central store, ignoring the locally stored versions. You need to copy the custom .admx files to the central store and not add them because there need to be only one ADMX file and not multiple versions of the same file in the central store.

QUESTION 10
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The network contains one Active Directory site. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You create a second Active Directory site and plan to install a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in the new site. You also plan to deploy a new firewall to connect the two sites. You need to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites. Which traffic should you permit through the firewall?
A. LDAP
B. NetBIOS
C. RPC
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
You should permit RPC traffic through the firewall to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites because the Active Directory relies on remote
procedure call (RPC) for replication between domain controllers. You can open the firewall wide to permit RPC’s native dynamic behavior.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-34)

QUESTION 1
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure?
A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table size
B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a
private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?
A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer
requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured.
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip
171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip
171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority
95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2
preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1
preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority
95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 15
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to
interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate
switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22. Which two code fragments write ” rose ” to a log? (Choose two.)
A. rose
B. rose
C.
D.
Answer: AD

QUESTION 23. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the element, using the rate attribute
B. the element, using the rate attribute
C. the element, using the duration attribute
D. the element, using the duration attribute
200-310 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
A. NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B. NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C. The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D. With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is OpenID used for?
A. to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B. to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C. to pay on-line via your own bank account
D. to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites
200-310 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?
A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is an example of the use of location information?
A. to determine the user’s native language
B. to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C. to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D. to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
What is the generally accepted communication protocol on the Internet?
A. Net BIOS
B. OSI
C. SNA
D. TCP/IP
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is an economic cloud solution for a short term project like a one time application design?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Software as-a-Service
C. Communication-as-a-Service
D. Security-as-a-Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
What may be an economic benefit of Cloud computing?
A. a custom accounting system
B. acceptance by employees
C. purchasing thin clients
D. reduced overhead
200-310 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32 What does the integrity of information mean?
A. It means that the access to the information is limited.
B. It means that the information can be accessed by those users who are allowed to access it.
C. It means that the information is accurate.
D. It means that the information is protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What is a main challenge for enterprises in using cell phones for collaboration?
A. Applications for collaboration are limited.
B. Collaborative applications are complicated.
C. Employees want to use their private cell phones.
D. Separating business data from personal data.
200-310 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
What is the principal function of the Hypervisor?
A. identity management
B. responding to client requests
C. scheduling the sharing of resources
D. virus protection
Correct Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With the configuration above, when we type andquot;do show vlanandquot; we would not see VLAN 10 in the VLAN database because it has not been created yet.

QUESTION 6
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr

QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle: Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct. AREA 2 o

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.

Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation/Reference:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers. In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands. IPv6 in I

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause ofthis problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2
100-105 dumps

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