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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Sprint planning should result in a commitment on what will be delivered at the end of the Sprint.
Who makes this commitment?
A. The Product Owner
B. The Scrum Master
C. The team
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A team is estimating story points. They estimate that the story falls between a large (13) and a medium (5) and they assign a story point of 8.
What is this technique called?
A. Affinity estimation
B. Fibonacci estimation
C. Triangulation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which Scrum ritual is meant to look back and improve upon the finished Sprint?
A. Daily Scrum.
B. Sprint Retrospective.
C. Sprint Review.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is meant by the velocity of the team?
A. The rate a team puts in a normal work day.
B. The rate at which features are released to the customer.
C. The rate at which the team completes the work.
D. The rate at which the team renews itself.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is a Sprint?
A. A brainstorming session in Extreme programming to generate design ideas.
B. A race between two developers to see who can complete a feature fastest.
C. One iteration in the Scrum methodology.
D. The last iteration in the Scrum project, when the team works long hours to finish the project.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is the primary responsibility of a Scrum Master in order to keep a Scrum team working at its peak level of productivity?
A. Keeping high priority features at the top of the Product Backlog.
B. Not allowing changes to the Product Backlog once the Sprint begins.
C. Supporting the team’s decisions and resolving the team’s issues.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How does Agile bring predictability to the Planning process?
A. By allowing the customers to review the progress often.
B. By assigning most of the responsibility to the Product Owner.
C. By making the team self-organized and self-planning.
D. By providing early visibility into the team’s progress.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
During the release planning meeting, it is difficult to agree on priorities.
Sales want to implement some new features to catch up with the competitors.
Marketing want to work on a mobile interface that can prove to be a competitive differentiator. Customer support want better logging and auditing capabilities to
improve maintainability.
What should be done to set the priorities?
A. Approach Senior Management and ask for priorities.
B. Survey the existing customers and prioritize according to their views.
C. The Product Owner will set the priorities.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
How should ‘done’ be defined when multiple teams are working on a single product?
A. All teams must have the same definition of ‘done’.
B. Each team must define and use their own definition of ‘done’.
C. The Scrum Master defines when the item is ‘done’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Near the end of a Sprint, the team realizes that they will not be able to complete the stories they had committed to.
What is the best course of action for the team?
A. Add resources and team members to meet the goals of the current Sprint.
B. Ask the Product Owner to decide which stories can be delayed until the next Sprint.
C. Decide on a new definition of ‘done’ for the Sprint Backlog Items.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is an “escaped defect”?
A. A defect that was found by the customer.
B. A defect that was planned to be fixed, but not fixed in a Sprint.
C. A defect the Continuous Integration System failed to catch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
According to Agile principles, what should be the pace of development?
A. Fast
B. Increasing
C. Sustainable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The Product Owner is going on a three-week vacation. The team should be closing the current Sprint and starting a new Sprint at the end of the first week of the
Product Owner’s vacation.
What is the best way to continue the Scrum rituals in this situation?
A. Each Scrum team should ideally have two Product Owners to provide cover.
B. The Product Owner should be requested to delay his vacation by a week.
C. The Scrum Master should take over and cover for the Product Owner.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Project Manager wants to track not just the rate of progress against tasks, but also the overall morale and happiness of the Scrum team.
What device will help track morale and happiness?
A. A Gross Happiness index
B. A Niko-niko calendar
C. An employee satisfaction survey
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
When is a Sprint complete?
A. When all of the Product Backlog items are completed.
B. When all the tasks in the Sprint Backlog are completed.
C. When the Sprint defined time box ends.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
What message can you give to a customer about a key benefit of using Scrum?
A. Scrum will give customers more control over day-to-day activities.
B. Scrum will help the team accept changes into the project at no additional cost.
C. The team will show a demonstration of working software every few weeks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A Manager requests to attend the daily stand-up meeting so that he can be more responsive to the team by being aware of the team’s progress and issues.
As the Scrum Master, what should you do?
A. Allow the Product Owner to participate in ‘listen only’ mode.
B. Allow the Product Owner to participate like any other team member.C. Turn down the request as the daily stand-up is only for the team.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the usual length of the time box for the complete Sprint Planning meeting?
A. Four hours for a 30 day Sprint, one to two hours for a shorter Sprint.
B. However long it takes to complete the Sprint Backlog.
C. Never more than two hours, regardless of Sprint length.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What is time-boxing?
A. A period of intense activity within a particular release.
B. Setting an upper time limit and planning the activities within that limit.
C. Tight planning focused on reducing the time required for any activity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What is a characteristic of a well-designed Agile work space?
A. It has a silent zone to facilitate concentration.
B. There is enough space for information radiators.
C. Work stations are personalized for team members.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A large product team features six different teams having ten members each, working on a project that involves four high level features.
How many Product Backlogs should the team have?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
What is an information radiator?
A. A physical display for the team that gives information about the current status.
B. A tool that automatically sends relevant information to the Product Owner.
C. A status report or dashboard that is maintained by the Scrum Master.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A Scrum team failed to meet the Sprint objectives. One of the key members of the team fell ill and was away for two days right at the beginning of the four week
Sprint.
What is the most likely reason that the team did not meet the Sprint objectives?
A. The Product Owner is unable to prioritize.
B. The team is lacking skills.
C. The team did not plan the Sprint effectively.
D. The team is over-worked.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
A 200 member project team is working on a large and complex system with multiple sub- systems. They would like to start using the Agile Scrum methodology.
As a Scrum Master, what would your best advice be?
A. Scrum is not suited for such a large project. The team should clearly use the Waterfall method or the Crystal Clear method.
B. Ask all potential members of the project team to have a meeting first and decide if they agree to use Scrum.
C. Agree a logical sub-division of the system so that smaller Scrum teams can work on sub- systems and can add tangible value.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A team estimates a Story using the Planning Poker technique. The team decides to allocate five Story points to the Story, because the Developers estimated two
points and the Testers estimated three points.
Which statement is true regarding this scenario?
A. Points are assigned by the Scrum Master, not by the team.
B. Points are assigned for the overall Story, not for parts of the Story.
C. Points are never estimated, but always determined beforehand.
D. The team forgets to ask the Product Owner about the estimate.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Why does the Daily Scrum need to be held at the same location and time?
A. The booking of a room needs to be done in advance for the duration of the Sprint.
B. The constant time and place is best for continuity of the Scrum framework.
C. The Project Manager needs to get the status updates at a given time every day.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is a Scrum-of-Scrums?
A. A meeting for management to get insight into the working of teams.
B. A meeting for Scrum Masters of international Scrum teams.
C. A meeting to coordinate the work of multiple Scrum teams.
D. A meeting to show the customer an update of the product.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Why is planning poker an effective estimation technique?
A. It generates a lot of useful discussion and gets team buy-in.
B. It results in lower estimates as team members will estimate individually.
C. It triggers a more detailed and task oriented break-up of the story.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A team decided to install a large traffic light in the team hall to indicate whether the latest build was healthy (green), failing a few tests (orange) or failing high
priority tests (red).
What term can be used to describe the traffic light?
A. Information radiator
B. Osmotic communication
C. Triangulation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which is a statement of value as described in the Agile manifesto?
A. We value customer collaboration over responding to changes.
B. We value project management over individuals and interactions.
C. We value processes and tools over comprehensive documentation.
D. We value responding to change to satisfy the customer.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
During a Sprint Planning session, the team argues about the work estimates for a particular story.
The Product Owner estimates five days.
The Lead Architect estimates two days.
The Scrum Master estimates eight days.
The team member working on it estimates seven days.
What value (in days) should be used for planning?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
From which sport is the term “Scrum” and much of the terminology derived?
A. Kick boxing
B. Polo
C. Rugby
D. Soccer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A team is trying to convince a customer about the value of adopting Scrum. The customer likes some of the features of the methodology like the bi-weekly
demonstration, but the customer remains largely unconvinced of the value of Scrum and refuses to change the way of working,
What should the team do?
A. Let the Scrum Master ‘translate’ to Waterfall practices.
B. Use Scrum and convince the customer during the process.
C. Do not follow Scrum until the customer is convinced of the value.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
The team determines that it has over-committed itself for a Sprint.
Who should be present when reviewing and adjusting the Sprint work?
A. The team, the Scrum Master and the Product Owner. The Stakeholders should be consulted.
B. The team and the Scrum Master. The Product Owner should be consulted.
C. The team only. The Product Owner should be consulted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Why are estimates expressed in terms of story points difficult to explain outside of the team?
A. It requires a comparison to a benchmark, which typically varies from team to team.
B. It requires a deeper understanding of the technical approach to implement each story.
C. It requires breaking the stories down into Sprint Backlog Items, which only the team can do.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is the difference between a varifocal lens and a zoom lens?
A. A zoom lens maintains focus when changing field of view
B. A varifocal lens has a longer field of view
C. A zoom lens always has automatic focus
D. There is no difference
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Audio detection can be used
A. Only with cameras with built in microphone.
B. In all Axis cameras but an extra intelligent video (IV) module is necessary.
C. Only in quiet areas.
D. For detecting a change in decibel levels.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Media Control
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A customer wants his video surveillance system to completely cover the perimeter of his property. For the installer to
ensure that the camera system is not subject to sabotage, he should
A. Install more low-priced cameras to cover the complete site.
B. Make sure each camera is seen by at least one other camera.
C. Use PoE, and not a PoE splitter.
D. Install thermal cameras.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer\’s technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer\’s goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
If image clarity changes are made within the camera web interface, but are not reflected within a Video Management
Software (VMS), what is the most likely cause of the camera not accepting the settings?
A. The camera is faulty and needs to be replaced
B. The VMS is overwriting the changes in the camera
C. The camera\’s advanced settings need to be changed first
D. The user does not have administrative rights to change the settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A P-iris lens is
A. An iris with higher light sensitivity.
B. Axis\’ standard for DC-iris.
C. A DC-iris with feedback.
D. An iris specially made for zoom lenses.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Who should be responsible for documenting a video surveillance installation?
A. The camera manufacturer
B. The customer\’s security manager
C. The customer\’s IT department
D. The integrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following general statements about illumination needs of PTZ cameras is true?
A. PTZ should not be used with IR light
B. The f-stop value of a lens will get higher if you zoom in
C. PTZ cameras in general tend to have lower f-stop value compared to fixed cameras
D. PTZ cameras should not be used with mixed IR and white light
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Why is it recommended to make a list of the Axis network video product serial numbers in an installation?
A. It provides an overview of what equipment has been used
B. The product name can be found inside the serial number
C. It make it is easier to identify the camera in AXIS Camera Management
D. It gives the status of the camera or encoder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A varifocal lens
A. Makes it possible to adjust the focal length like a zoom lens, but requires refocusing after adjusting the focal length.
B. Allows the depth of field to be adjusted, making it possible to blur out the background for privacy protection or
reducing distraction.
C. Can rapidly change focus between a set of predefined positions, making it easy to move between different points of
interest in the scene.
D. Is a lens where the focus can be adjusted, as opposed to a fixed focus lens, making it possible to focus on objectsclose to the camera.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true for broadcast network traffic?
A. Broadcast is designed to enable optimized video transmission, since it tolerates network dropouts
B. Broadcast is not practical for network video transmission, since packets are transmitted to every device on the
network
C. Broadcast is a method for sending video to many recipients over the internet even though their bandwidths vary
D. Broadcast data packet length is longer than normal Ethernet packets, to accommodate a full video frame
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A customer has strict requirements of 30 fps for recorded video. Which encoder choice would they select if they wanted
three streams, per every one encoded channel, of D1 resolution video run at 30 fps in H.264?
A. AXISM7210
B. AXISP7210
C. AXISP7214
D. AXISQ7406
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:
A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate
C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A convenience store needs a camera to cover the entrance. Identification is needed at 80 pixels per face. Given that the
scene is 2 m (6 ft 7 in) wide, which of these resolutions is the minimum one needed?
A. 640X480
B. 800 X 600
C. 1280 X 720
D. 1920 X 1080
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there\’s any way to get more of the aisle and less of the shelves on
the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best suggestion to the retailer?
A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm
B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm
C. Using Axis\’ Corridor Format
D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A camera lens with a low f-stop value of 1.2 will outperform a lens with a higher f- stop value due to which one of the
parameters below?
A. Better depth of field
B. Better low light capability
C. Improved sharpness
D. Less image artifacts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Where is the best place to mount a camera with a fixed iris?
A. Outside, on a pole
B. Inside, in a room with large windows C. Outside, in a shadowed position
D. Inside, in a room with very strong light sources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be securely viewed
off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users disconnect
cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that malicious users will
intercept it
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
An installation with an AXIS P1344 experiences image flickering. How can this be remedied?
A. Adding white light to the scene
B. Adding IR light to the scene
C. Changing the camera\’s exposure setting
D. Changing the camera\’s white balance
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
What are the effects of changing the capture mode on an AXIS P1346 from 2048×1536 (3 MP) to 1920×1080 (HDTV)?
(Choose two)
A. Minimum illumination decreases
B. Vertical angle of view decreases
C. Maximum frame rate decreases
D. Maximum frame rate increases
E. Motion blur increases
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
If using H.264 compression, in theory, what could a video containing no l-frames look like? A. The first P-frame is visible during the whole video
B. A black image is visible during the whole video
C. All moving objects will be visible
D. All non-moving objects will be visible
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A VPN
A. Is required to enable viewing network surveillance video on mobile devices.
B. Is a network specially optimized to handle video data packets.
C. Creates a secure tunnel through the network, where your information travels encrypted.
D. Translates domain names to IP addresses, according to the IPv4 standard.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Focusing a camera improves the image, but it also
A. Has an effect on the frame rate
B. Increases the bandwidth
C. Changes the pixel resolution
D. Decreases the bandwidth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which feature in Axis cameras allows for a fixed box style camera to tell a PTZ camera to move to a preset?
A. HTTP server
B. QoS
C. FTP server
D. TCP/IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
An installer wants to connect and power a P|R sensor from an Axis camera\’s I/O port. What would be the output DC
voltage? A. 1, 5V
B. 3. 3 V
C. 5V
D. 7 V
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
After an installer sets up a motion detection window they then zoom out the camera. How will this affect the camera\’s
ability to detect motion if no settings are changed?
A. More pixels are needed to change to trigger motion detection
B. Less pixels are needed to change to trigger motion detection
C. More movement needed to change to trigger motion detection
D. Less movement needed to change to trigger motion detection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
The first time an Axis camera\’s Live View is accessed the user is prompted to do which of the following?
A. Configure a root password
B. Select a resolution
C. Enter a camera name
D. Assign IP address
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: IP Routing Technologies
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA. Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?

A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.
B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA.
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?

A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

Cisco 200-101 Exam Question Answer

200-101 pdf

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Answer: A, C, F

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?

A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 210-260 vce
QUESTION 6
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16 D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving  program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application

Answer: E    
QUESTION 7
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

200-101 pdf

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QUESTION 1
You have to recommend a solution to help the students solve their problem regarding the historical sources. The problem must be solved as quickly as possible. What should you recommend? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Modify the language settings on the students’ desktop or laptop computers.
B. Email the source text to a language teacher at the school.
C. Use an Internet-based translation tool.
D. Use a social networking site to connect with students in other countries and upload the text to the social networking site.
62-193 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You teach a class of 20 students. Your classroom contains six computers. You run an activity that is carried out mostly on paper. Before the end of the activity, the students will require access to the computers. Which lesson structure should provide the best learning experience for the students?
A. Create several different activities that require the computers at different stages during the lesson.
B. Execute the computer-based portion of the activity as a class demonstration.
C. Modify the tasks of the lesson so that only some of the students require access to the computers.
D. Have all of the students perform the same activity and instruct the students to take turns using the computers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the primary benefit of increasing the use of ICT resources during the history lessons?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. The students will have access to a greater range of learning resources.
B. The students will more easily and quickly submit their assignments.
C. The students will stay on task throughout the lessons.
D. The students will deliver assignments that are clearer and more presentable.
62-193 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You plan to use ICT to prepare an effective persuasive writing lesson. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Use the Internet to find a complete, ready-made lesson to use with the students.
B. Use the Internet to find teaching resources to discuss with the students.
C. Use spell check software to improve your lesson plan.
D. Scan sections of the class textbook to use as reference.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You plan to lead a class discussion about the persuasive writing examples that the students bring in and to display the examples to the entire class. Which two ICT resources should you use to achieve this task? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a flatbed scanner
B. a data projector
C. a monochrome laser printer
D. a digital camera
62-193 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
You want to identify the primary benefit of using ICT during the persuasive writing lesson. Which benefit should you identify? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. In today’s world, writing is mostly done on a computer.
B. ICT helps students develop word processing skills.
C. The computer lab is used regularly.
D. Word processing applications allow students to easily edit and modify text.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You want the students to collect information from organizations that they find on the Internet. Which instructions or advice should you provide to the students? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the information sent to the student’s home e-mail address.
B. Only request information from organizations that have a secure Web site.
C. Have the information sent to the school’s e-mail address.
D. Only request information from organizations that have a Web site that requires registration.
62-193 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
One of your students has poor hearing. You want to ensure that the student has the opportunity to interact with the farmer during the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. After the video-conference, have the other students explain the key points of the conference to the student.
B. Before the video-conference, have the student submit questions in writing.
C. Manipulate the seating arrangement.
D. Record the audio portion of the video-conference for further listening.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You want to address the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT) policy goals by using the school’s limited ICT resources. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Ask the students to use their computers at home.
B. Have the students work in collaborative groups.
C. Ask the students to use their mobile devices.
D. Have the more confident students use the computers while the other students observe them.
62-193 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your class just completed the video-conference with the farmer. You want to do a quick assessment to identify how many students understood the key points of the video-conference. What should you do? This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the students use the student response system.
B. Have the students work in pairs to create a blog.
C. Have each student write an essay by using a word processing application.
D. Have each student design a presentation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You teach an economics lesson about the effects of using price discount strategies. During the class, you provide detailed sales statistics from a major national retailer. Some of the students question the effectiveness of price discount strategies. You want to demonstrate to the students that the strategies are cost-effective. What should you do?
A. Search the Internet for Web sites that contain more information about retail pricing strategies.
B. Enter sample sales figures into a spreadsheet to model the effects of using price discountstrategies.
C. Search the Internet for teaching resources on retail pricing strategies.
D. Email several retail management experts and ask them for examples of how they use price discountstrategies.
62-193 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You want to improve the students’ research skills by using ICT resources. The solution must help meet the school’s organizational goals. What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Tell the students to search for information on the Internet.
B. Give the students a list of Internet links to sites about acid rain.
C. Give the students printed Web pages about acid rain.
D. Work with the students to create a list of search terms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You have used Information and Communication Technology (ICT) successfully in the classroom for several years. A new teacher at the school says that she has had little opportunity to use ICT in the classroom. She wants to make use of the computer lab in her teaching. What advice would you give her?
A. Ensure that the planned activities are easy for the students.
B. Ensure that the planned activities are fun for the students.
C. Ensure that the planned activities are suitable for the learning objectives.
D. Ensure that the students understand how ICT will be used to complete their activities.
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QUESTION 1
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
700-070 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
Which infrastructure component is needed for OBTP?
A. Prime Collaboration
B. Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco TelePresence System
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two options are available through the participant icon? (Choose two.)
A. List all missed calls.
B. Drop a caller from the call.
C. List all participants who were dropped from the call.
D. List all participants on the call.
E. Add a caller to the call.
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
How can you change presentation display options during a call?
A. Open the share tray and drag the presentation to the desired location.
B. Open the share tray and assign display numbers to each presentation.
C. Open the system settings and reconfigure the display options.
D. Open the participant list and drag the presentation to the desired location.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two actions are part of the Display Connection step during endpoint configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Determine the screen resolution.
B. Register the endpoint to Unified Communications Manager.
C. Perform an internal display cabling check.
D. Determine the system layout display on Touch 10.
E. Register the endpoint to the Cisco VCS.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which installation key for the IX5000 is required for IX5000 infrastructure configuration?
A. Cisco TMS
B. Cisco VCS
C. Unified Communication Manager
D. TelePresence MCU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options to be noted during infrastructure configuration? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. number of screens
D. serial number
E. number of rows
700-070 vce Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which device is a component of the IX5000?
A. ceiling-mounted microphone array
B. triple 4K UHD camera cluster
C. acoustic ceiling tile
D. Touch 8 user interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Where can you find presentation statistics in a point-to-point IX5000 call?
A. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General
B. Monitoring > Call Statistics > Audio Only
C. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Video
D. Monitoring > Call Statistics > General > AV Call Audio
700-070 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which step is required during pre-installation of the IX5000?
A. Hang celling lights.
B. Install wall panels.
C. Verify that the room floor is level.
D. Verify that appropriate licenses, upgrades, and tools are available.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Where can you find the results for noise-level and reverberation tests?
A. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Reports
B. Touch 10 Interface > System Setup > Log Files
C. Admin GUI > Logs > Reports
D. Admin GUI > Reports > Log Files
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the room power requirements?
A. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
B. 0.95 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
C. 0.95kW for the system, plus 1.0 kW for all table-participant devices
D. 1.0 kW for the system, plus 0.95 kW for all table-participant devices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What causes echo or reverberation in the room during a call?
A. too many acoustic panels
B. too many hard surfaces
C. too many people
D. too many devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is the purpose of the IX5000?
A. immersive collaboration
B. mobile-device use
C. desktop use
D. home use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
700-070 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 19
Which two standards does the IX5000 codec support? (Choose two.)
A. H.324
B. H.320
C. H.265
D. G.729AB
E. G.728
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
How many hours does the initial camera setup typically require?
A. 3 to 4
B. 2 to 3
C. 1 to 2
D. less than 1
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which device type is correct for the IX5200?
A. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (9 seats)
B. Cisco TelePresence IX5200 (18 seats)
C. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (9 seats)
D. Cisco TelePresence IX5000 (18 seats)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which two options are available on the Touch 10 Home screen? (Choose two.)
A. Share presentations locally.
B. Add directory contacts.
C. Modify system settings.
D. Place and receive calls.
E. Modify network settings.
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23
What is the maximum image resolution of the 4K UHD camera display in the IX5000?
A. 1080p60
B. 1280p60
C. 1080p30
D. 720p30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which action should you take during recabling?
A. Disconnect power.
B. Hot-swap cables.
C. Connect power.
D. Use cables interchangeably.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
How many simultaneous streams of data does the IX5000 support?
A. four
B. six
C. five
D. three
700-070 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What should you do first when Self View display issues occur?
A. Close and re-open Self View.
B. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
C. Close and re-open the share tray.
D. Power-cycle the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What is the proper order of steps for installing an IX5000?
A. Perform cable routing, install display frames, install tabletops, and install the codec.
B. Install tabletops, perform cable routing, install display frames, and install the codec.
C. Install display frames, install the codec, perform cable routing, and install tabletops.
D. Install display frames, install tabletops, perform cable routing, and install the codec.
700-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
How many presentations can be shared in a direct IX5000-to-IX5000 call?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
If a single microphone fails, you should first test cabling between which two points?
A. the TDM and the codec
B. the microphone bar and the Touch 10
C. the microphone bar and the codec
D. the microphone bar and the TDM
700-070 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Where can you find packet-transmission statistics?
A. Monitoring > Maintenance
B. Monitoring > Network Data
C. Monitoring > Statistics
D. Monitoring > Call Info
700-070 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
What is the minimum required number of people to install an IX5000 in one day?
A. three
B. four
C. two
D. one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What should you do first when the local Touch 10 falsely indicates that content is being shared?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
700-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
What should you do first when a display shows a black screen instead of presentation content after hot
swapping cables?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Where is the option to choose OBTP?
A. Booking > Basic Settings> New Conference
B. New Conference > Booking > Basic Settings > Type
C. Booking > New Conference > Basic Settings > Type
D. Basic Settings > New Conference > Booking
700-070 exam Correct Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-647 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-10)

QUESTION 1
Your network consists of one Active directory domain. The functional level of the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company has three departments named Sales, Marketing, and Engineering. All users in the domain are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllUsers. You have three custom applications. You deploy all custom applications by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named AppInstall. The Sales department purchases a new application that is only licensed for use by the Sales department. You need to recommend a solution to simplify the distribution of the new application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
The application must only be distributed to licensed users. ?The amount of administrative effort required to manage the users must remain unaffected. The three custom applications must be distributed to all existing and new users on the network.
What should you recommend?
A. Create a new child domain for each department and link the AppInstall GPO to each child domain. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales domain.
B. Create a new child OU for each department. Link the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing OU and the Engineering OU. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the Sales OU.
C. Create a new group for each department and filter the AppInstall GPO to each group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
D. Create a new group for each department. Filter the AppInstall GPO to the Marketing group and the Engineering group. Create a new GPO. Link the new GPO to the domain. Filter the new GPO to the Sales group.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To ensure that the other applications are distributed to all existing and new users on the network, you need to create a new group for each department and filter the InstallApp GPO to each group. Filtering allows you to target only specific computers or users. You can create and modify multiple preference items within each GPO, and you can filter each preference item to target only specific computers or users. Finally to simplify the distribution of the licensed application to the users of
the sales department, you need to create and link a new GPO to the domain and filter the new GPO to the Sales group. You should not filter the InstallApp GPO to the Marketing group and the Development groups only because all the other applications beside the licensed
application need to be installed to the Sales department also.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2 and client computers that run Windows 7. All network routers support IPsec connections. Client computers and servers use IPsec to connect through network routers. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) installed and is configured as a certification authority (CA). Server2 runs Internet Information Services (IIS). You need to recommend a certificate solution for the network routers. The solution must meet the following requirements Use the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP).Enable the routers to automatically request certificates. What should you recommend implementing?
A. Certification authority Web enrollment services on Server2
B. Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2
C. Online Responder service on Server1
D. Subordinate CA on Server1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To recommend a certificate solution for the network routers that would enable the routers to automatically request certificates and that would use Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP), you need to implement Network Device Enrollment Service on Server2. The Network Device Enrollment Service allows routers and other network devices to obtain certificates based on the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP) from Cisco Systems Inc.
Reference: Windows Server Active Directory Certificate Services Step-by-Step Guide/ AD CS Technology Review

QUESTION 3
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. Your company uses a firewall to connect to the Internet. Inbound TCP/IP port 443 is allowed on the firewall. You have terminal servers on the internal network. You have one server on the internal network that has Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) deployed. All servers run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway. What should you recommend?
A. Change the firewall rules to permit traffic through port 3389 from the Internet.
B. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Web Access (TS Web Access) services role.
C. Install the Terminal Services server role with the Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker) services role.
D. Create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP).
70-647 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a solution that enables remote users to access network resources by using TS Gateway, you need to create a Terminal Services connection authorization policy (TS CAP) and a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). TS CAPs allow you to specify who can connect to a TS Gateway server. Users are granted access to a TS Gateway server if they meet the conditions specified in the TS CAP. You must also create a Terminal Services resource authorization policy (TS RAP). A TS RAP allows you to specify the internal network resources that users can connect to through TS Gateway. Until you create
both a TS CAP and a TS RAP, users cannot connect to internal network resources through this TS Gateway server. Reference: Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) / Why are TS CAPs important?

QUESTION 4
Your network consists of one Active Directory forest that contains one root domain and 22 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run the DNS Server service and host Active Directory-integrated zones. Administrators report that it takes more than one hour to restart the DNS servers. You need to reduce the time it takes to restart the DNS servers. What should you do?
A. Upgrade all domain controllers to Windows Server 2008.
B. Upgrade all domain controllers in the root domain to Windows Server 2008, and then set the functional level for the root domain to Windows Server 2008.
C. Deploy new secondary zones on additional servers in each child domain.
D. Change the Active Directory-integrated DNS zones to standard primary zones.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Sometime DNS server can take an hour or more in companies that have extremely large zones and the DNS data of the company is stored in AD DS. The result is that the DNS server is effectively unavailable to service client requests for the entire time that it takes to load AD DS- based zones. The problem can be solved by upgrading the domain controllers to Windows Server 2008. This is because a DNS server running Windows Server 2008 now loads zone data from AD DS in the background while it restarts so that it can respond to requests for data from other zones.
Reference: DNS Server Role/ Background zone loading

QUESTION 5
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You have file servers that run Windows Server 2008. Client computers run Windows Vista and UNIX-based operating systems. All users have both Active Directory user accounts and UNIX realm user accounts. Both environments follow identical user naming conventions. You need to provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Users must only log on once to access all resources. ?No additional client software must be installed on UNIX-based client computers. What should you do?
A. Create a realm trust so that the Active Directory domain trusts the UNIX realm.
B. Install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
C. Enable the subsystem for UNIX-based applications on the file servers. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the client computers.
D. Enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping. Enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers.
70-647 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To provide the UNIX-based client computers access to the file servers, you need to enable the User Name Mapping component and configure simple mapping and also enable a Network File System (NFS) component on the servers. User Name Mapping (UNM) bridges the gap between the different user identification used in Windows and UNIX worlds. When UNM is used it in conjunction with Server for NFS, UNM authenticates the incoming NFS access requests. With Client for NFS, it determines the effective UID and GID to be sent with the NFS requests to UNIX NFS servers.

QUESTION 6
Your Company has a main office and 10 branch offices. The network consists of one Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are located in the main office. Each branch office contains one member server. Branch office administrators in each branch office are assigned the necessary rights to administer only their member servers.
You deploy one read-only domain controller (RODC) in each branch office.
You need to recommend a security solution for the branch office Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers. The solution must meet the following requirements: Branch office administrators must be granted rights on their local domain controller only. ?Branch office administrators must be able to administer the domain controller in their branch office. This includes changing device drivers and running Windows updates. What should you recommend?
A. Add each branch office administrator to the Administrators group of the domain.
B. Add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller.
C. Grant each branch office administrator Full Control permission on their domain controller computer object in Active Directory.
D. Move each branch office domain controller computer object to a new organizational unit (OU). Grant each local administrator Full Control permission on the
new OU.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To allow branch office administrators to manage their local domain controller only, change device drivers, and run Windows updates, you need to add each branch office administrator to the local Administrators group of their respective domain controller. The users of Local administrator group have administrative rights on their local domain controllers to manage several machines to perform all necessary administrative tasks but they have restricted rights as compared to domain administrators.
Reference: Adding a group to the local administrators group

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2003. The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-647 dumps
The Bridge all site links option is enabled.
You need to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in only the hub sites. The solution must ensure that domain controllers can replicate if a server fails in one of the hub sites.
What should you do?
A. Lower the site link costs between the spoke sites and the hub sites.
B. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Create site link bridges that include the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites.
C. Disable the Bridge all site links option. Install a writable domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in each hub site.
D. Enable the global catalog server attribute for all domain controllers in the hub sites. Upgrade all domain controllers in the spoke sites to Windows Server 2008.
70-647 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, all site links are bridged so that all the sites that are not connected by an explicit site link can communicate directly, through a chain of intermediary site links and sites. However, if you want to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites do not replicate with other spoke sites when a server fails in one of the hub sites, you need to disable the Bridge all site links option. You need to then create site link bridges to create the site links between each spoke site and the hub sites to ensure that domain controllers in the spoke sites can replicate with domain controllers in the hub sites.
Reference: Configuring site link bridges

QUESTION 8
Your company has 5,000 users. The network contains servers that run Windows Server 2008. You need to recommend a collaboration solution for the users to
meet the following requirements:
Support tracking of document version history.
Enable shared access to documents created in Microsoft Office. Enable shared access to documents created by using Web pages.
The solution must be achieved without requiring any additional costs. What should you recommend?
A. Install servers that run the Web Server role.
B. Install servers that run the Application Server role.
C. Install servers that run Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
D. Install servers that run Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) 2007.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To achieve the desired results without requiring any additional cost, you need to use Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
Reference: Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 and the Mobile Workplace

QUESTION 9
Your Company has 10 offices. Each office has 10 domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008. The network consists of one Active directory domain. Each office has a local administrator. You use domain-level Group Policy objects (GPO). Office administrators have the necessary permissions to create and link domain-level Group Policy objects. You create custom Administrative Template (.admx) files locally on a computer that runs Windows Vista. You need to implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to the .admx files from
each office. The solution must ensure that .admx files remain identical across the company. What should you do?
A. In the domain, create a central store. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
B. In each office, create a central store on a file server. Copy the custom .admx files to the central store.
C. Create a GPO and link it to the domain. Add the .admx files to the GPO.
D. Create a GPO and link it to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU). Add the custom .admx files to the GPO.
70-647 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To implement a GPO management strategy to ensure that the administrators can access the .admx files and any future updates to these files from each office and to ensure that the .admx files remain identical across the company, you need to create a central store in the domain and copy the custom .admx files to the central store. The central store for ADMX files allows all local administrators to edit domain-based GPOs to access the same set of ADMX files. When a central store is created, the Group Policy tools will use the ADMX files only in the central store, ignoring the locally stored versions. You need to copy the custom .admx files to the central store and not add them because there need to be only one ADMX file and not multiple versions of the same file in the central store.

QUESTION 10
Your network consists of one Active Directory domain. The network contains one Active Directory site. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. You create a second Active Directory site and plan to install a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 in the new site. You also plan to deploy a new firewall to connect the two sites. You need to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites. Which traffic should you permit through the firewall?
A. LDAP
B. NetBIOS
C. RPC
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
You should permit RPC traffic through the firewall to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites because the Active Directory relies on remote
procedure call (RPC) for replication between domain controllers. You can open the firewall wide to permit RPC’s native dynamic behavior.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-34)

QUESTION 1
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure?
A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table size
B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a
private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?
A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer
requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured.
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip
171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip
171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority
95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2
preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1
preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority
95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 15
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to
interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate
switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22. Which two code fragments write ” rose ” to a log? (Choose two.)
A. rose
B. rose
C.
D.
Answer: AD

QUESTION 23. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the element, using the rate attribute
B. the element, using the rate attribute
C. the element, using the duration attribute
D. the element, using the duration attribute
200-310 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
A. NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B. NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C. The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D. With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is OpenID used for?
A. to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B. to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C. to pay on-line via your own bank account
D. to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites
200-310 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?
A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is an example of the use of location information?
A. to determine the user’s native language
B. to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C. to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D. to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
What is the generally accepted communication protocol on the Internet?
A. Net BIOS
B. OSI
C. SNA
D. TCP/IP
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is an economic cloud solution for a short term project like a one time application design?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Software as-a-Service
C. Communication-as-a-Service
D. Security-as-a-Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
What may be an economic benefit of Cloud computing?
A. a custom accounting system
B. acceptance by employees
C. purchasing thin clients
D. reduced overhead
200-310 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32 What does the integrity of information mean?
A. It means that the access to the information is limited.
B. It means that the information can be accessed by those users who are allowed to access it.
C. It means that the information is accurate.
D. It means that the information is protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What is a main challenge for enterprises in using cell phones for collaboration?
A. Applications for collaboration are limited.
B. Collaborative applications are complicated.
C. Employees want to use their private cell phones.
D. Separating business data from personal data.
200-310 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
What is the principal function of the Hypervisor?
A. identity management
B. responding to client requests
C. scheduling the sharing of resources
D. virus protection
Correct Answer: C

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100-105 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With the configuration above, when we type andquot;do show vlanandquot; we would not see VLAN 10 in the VLAN database because it has not been created yet.

QUESTION 6
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr

QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle: Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct. AREA 2 o

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.
100-105 dumps
Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation/Reference:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers. In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands. IPv6 in I

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause ofthis problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2
100-105 dumps

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210-260 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-40)

QUESTION 1
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
210-260 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which statement about college campus is true?
A. College campus has geographical position.
B. College campus Hasn`t got internet access.
C. College campus Has multiple subdomains.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two characteristics apply to an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) Choose two
A. Does not add delay to the original traffic.
B. Cabled directly inline with the flow of the network traffic.
C. Can drop traffic based on a set of rules.
D. Runs in promoscous mode.
E. Cannot drop the packet on its own
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which type of PVLAN port allows hosts in the same VLAN to communicate directly with each other?
A. community for hosts in the PVLAN
B. promiscuous for hosts in the PVLAN
C. isolated for hosts in the PVLAN
D. span for hosts in the PVLAN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An attacker installs a rogue switch that sends superior BPDUs on your network. What is a possible result of this activity?
A. The switch could offer fake DHCP addresses.
B. The switch could become the root bridge.
C. The switch could be allowed to join the VTP domain.
D. The switch could become a transparent bridge.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5
E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
210-260 vce Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
B. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
C. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
D. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What type of packet creates and performs network operations on a network device?
A. control plane packets
B. data plane packets
C. management plane packets
D. services plane packets
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
How does the Cisco ASA use Active Directory to authorize VPN users?
A. It queries the Active Directory server for a specific attribute for the specified user.
B. It sends the username and password to retrieve an ACCEPT or REJECT message from the Active Directory server.
C. It downloads and stores the Active Directory database to query for future authorization requests.
D. It redirects requests to the Active Directory server defined for the VPN group.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two functions can SIEM provide? (Choose Two)
A. Correlation between logs and events from multiple systems.
B. event aggregation that allows for reduced log storage requirements.
C. proactive malware analysis to block malicious traffic.
D. dual-factor authentication.
E. centralized firewall management.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two uses of SIEM software? (Choose two.)
A. collecting and archiving syslog data
B. alerting administrators to security events in real time
C. performing automatic network audits
D. configuring firewall and IDS devices
E. scanning email for suspicious attachments
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure data?
A. a public/private key pair
B. shared secret keys
C. an RSA nonce
D. an MD5 hash
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?
A. IPS
B. fail-close
C. IDS
D. fail-open
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the effect of the ASA command crypto isakmp nat-traversal?
A. It opens port 4500 only on the outside interface.
B. It opens port 500 only on the inside interface.
C. It opens port 500 only on the outside interface.
D. It opens port 4500 on all interfaces that are IPSec enabled.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is true about the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?
A. The feature can be disabled through a remote session
B. There is additional space required to secure the primary Cisco IOS Image file
C. The feature automatically detects image and configuration version mismatch
D. Remote storage is used for securing files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which prevent the company data from modification even when the data is in transit?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Vailability
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which IPS detection method can you use to detect attacks that based on the attackers IP addresses?
A. Policy-based
B. Anomaly-based
C. Reputation-based
D. Signature-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 20
Which filter uses in Web reputation to prevent from Web Based Attacks? (Choose two)
A. outbreak filter
B. buffer overflow filter
C. bayesian overflow filter
D. web reputation
E. exploit filtering
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
How does a zone-based firewall implementation handle traffic between interfaces in the same zone?
A. Traffic between two interfaces in the same zone is allowed by default.
B. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you configure the same- security permit command.
C. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is always blocked.
D. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you apply a service policy to the zone pair.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
What is a potential drawback to leaving VLAN 1 as the native VLAN?
A. It may be susceptible to a VLAN hoping attack.
B. Gratuitous ARPs might be able to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.
C. The CAM might be overloaded, effectively turning the switch into a hub.
D. VLAN 1 might be vulnerable to IP address spoofing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is the actual IOS privilege level of User Exec mode?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 5
D. 15
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which three statements about Cisco host-based IPS solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
# nat (inside,outside) dynamic interface Refer to the above. Which translation technique does this configuration result in?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Dynamic PAT
D. Twice NAT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a switch is true?
A. The isolated port can communicate only with the promiscuous port.
B. The isolated port can communicate with other isolated ports and the promiscuous port.
C. The isolated port can communicate only with community ports.
D. The isolated port can communicate only with other isolated ports.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?
A. a symmetric algorithm
B. an asymmetric algorithm
C. a Public Key Infrastructure algorithm
D. an IP security algorithm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Where OAKLEY and SKEME come to play?
A. IKE
B. ISAKMP
C. DES
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
In which configuration mode do you configure the ip ospf authentication-key 1 command?
A. Interface
B. routing process
C. global
D. privileged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which of the following commands result in a secure bootset? (Choose all that apply.)
A. secure boot-set
B. secure boot-config
C. secure boot-files
D. secure boot-image
210-260 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
In a security context, which action can you take to address compliance?
A. Implement rules to prevent a vulnerability.
B. Correct or counteract a vulnerability.
C. Reduce the severity of a vulnerability.
D. Follow directions from the security appliance manufacturer to remediate a vulnerability.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which type of layer 2 attack enables the attacker to intercept traffic that is intended for one specific recipient?
A. BPDU attack
B. DHCP Starvation
C. CAM table overflow
D. MAC address spoofing
210-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which command verifies phase 1 of an IPsec VPN on a Cisco router?
A. show crypto map
B. show crypto ipsec sa
C. show crypto isakmp sa
D. show crypto engine connection active
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?
A. Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.
B. A Web site security framework.
C. A security discussion forum for Web site developers.
D. Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
What can cause the the state table of a stateful firewall to update? (choose two)
A. when a connection is created
B. when a connection\’s timer has expired within state table
C. when packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
D. when outbound packets forwarded to outbound interface
E. when rate-limiting is applied
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally
visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router\’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router\’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall\’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
If a router configuration includes the line aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ enable, which events will occur
when the TACACS+ server returns an error? (Choose two.)
A. The user will be prompted to authenticate using the enable password
B. Authentication attempts to the router will be denied
C. Authentication will use the router`s local database
D. Authentication attempts will be sent to the TACACS+ server
210-260 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 40
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-45)

QUESTION 6
What relationship is represented in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. manifestation of an artifact
B. node with deployed artifacts
C. node deployed on an artifact
D. node with annotated property values
E. node with deployment specifications
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What determines how many values will move across an object flow edge at one time?
A. effect
B. ordering
C. upper bound
D. selection
E. weight
F. transformation
Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What can be used when the source of an object flow has values of type Customer, and the target needs the name of the customer?
A. upper bound
B. selection
C. effect
D. ordering
E. weight
F. transformation
Answer: F

QUESTION 9
What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no exception parameters declared?
A. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
B. appended to an exception log
C. handled by a default handler
D. sent to the “ExceptionManager” object
E. ignored
70-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. p is a behavior port.
B. p is a hidden port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
B. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
C. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
70-410 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a procedural language.
B. OCL is a query language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a programming language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 13
What is true about a parameterized package? (Choose two)
A. a package where all classes in the package are parameterized
B. a package with different variants, where the parameters tell how the package may vary
C. names of classes within a parameterized package can be parameters of the package
D. a package from which new packages can be defined by binding parameters
E. a package that is instantiable, and where the actual parameters are provided when creating package instances
F. a package with parameters that are names of other imported packages and a binding tells which actual packages are imported
70-410 vce Answer: C,D

QUESTION 14
What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. can represent all system structures
B. is a kind of package
C. can represent only software systems
D. cannot contain another model
E. is a kind of component
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 15
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. failure mode use cases
E. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
Answer: C,D

QUESTION 16
What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
B. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
C. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
D. send a request to a port
Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is NOT true of a transition in a protocol state machine?
A. may have no associated operation
B. may have a precondition
C. may have multiple associated operation
D. may have a postcondition
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component’s namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. contents of the component’s namespace are promoted to its superclass
C. objects continue to exist
D. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
Answer: A

QUESTION 19
If an activity is executed three times in parallel, how many executions exist? (Choose two)
A. two
B. three
C. one
D. none
E. any number
70-410 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION 20
What is true of a protocol state machine?
A. may have a behavioral feature context
B. must be associated with exactly one classifier
C. may be associated with any number of classifiers
D. cannot be associated with a classifier
Answer: B

QUESTION 21
By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose three)
A. import
B. dependency
C. power types
D. inheritance
E. ownership
F. association end subsets
70-410 vce Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 22
What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
D. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
E. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
70-410 exam Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which classifiers may NOT realize an InformationItem?
A. Component
B. Interface
C. ObjectNode
D. Class
E. Signal
F. InformationItem
Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The preconditions of behavioral features of an interface can be specified in what way?
A. the set of its features
B. the actions of its protocol state machine
C. the parameters of its protocol state machine
D. comments attached to the corresponding features
E. one or more guard conditions of a protocol state machine
Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Duplicates are NOT allowed in which OCL types?
A. Collection
B. Bag
C. Set
D. Sequence
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What does a local precondition mean?
A. An activity begins executing when the precondition becomes true. B.
An action begins executing when the precondition becomes true.
C. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an activity begins executing.
D. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an action begins executing.
E. An activity may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
F. An action may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
Answer: D

QUESTION 27
If a data store node has three values and one moves across an outgoing edge, how many are left?
A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
C. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
D. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
E. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
Answer: A

QUESTION 29
To which layers in the 4-layer metamodel hierarchy for the UML metamodel (as depicted in the exhibit) do M1 and M2 correspond?
Exhibit:
A. M2 = user model; M1 = UML metamodel
B. M2 = user model; M1 = runtime instances
C. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = user model
D. M2 = MOF meta-metamodel; M1 = UML metamodel
E. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = MOF meta-metamodel
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. connector
B. transition
C. association
D. dependency
70-410 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 31
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. association
B. dependency
C. connector
D. transition
Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a typed language.
B. OCL is a programming language.
C. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
D. OCL is a query language.
E. OCL is a procedural language.
F. OCL is a specification language.
Answer: A,D,F

QUESTION 33
What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
D. a particular aspect of a collaboration
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
B. failure mode use cases
C. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component repository
Answer: A,B

QUESTION 35
In the exhibit, at which levels are the DeploymentSpecifications?
Exhibit:
A. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = instance level
B. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = spec level
C. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = spec level
D. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = instance level
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 36
If an action has a behavior with three sets of parameters, how many of the sets can provide output for a single execution of the behavior?
A. any number
B. two
C. one
D. three
Answer: C

QUESTION 37
The exhibit depicts the UML superstructure packages for behavioral models. What is the correct identity for packages Foo and Bar?
Exhibit:
A. Foo = Activities; Bar = Collaborations
B. Foo = CommonBehaviors; Bar = Activities
C. Foo = CoreBehavior; Bar = Communications
D. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Sequences
E. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Activities
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 38
What boundary do lightning bolt arrows cross to have an effect?
A. structured node
B. interruptible region
C. activity
D. exception region
E. expansion region
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 39
In the exhibit, what is the minimum number of incoming arrows that must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
Exhibit:
A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: C,E

QUESTION 41
An information flow may NOT occur between which elements?
A. classes
B. instance specifications
C. use cases
D. packages
E. associations
70-410 dumps Answer: E

QUESTION 42
Which stereotype is NOT expected to see decorating an ExecutionEnvironment instance?
A. <<database subsystem>>
B. <<stream file>>
C. <<workflow engine>>
D. <<CRM System>>
E. <<OS>>
Answer: B

QUESTION 43
What is an abstract type in OCL?
A. Bag
B. Sequence
C. Integer
D. Set
E. Collection
70-410 pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 44
Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<source>>
C. <<executable>>
D. <<script>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

QUESTION 45
What characteristic of an object node can prevent it from receiving a value?
A. selection
B. effect
C. ordering
D. upper bound
E. transformation
F. weight
70-410 vce Answer: D

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