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CompTIA A+ 220-1002 PDF Questions

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QUESTION 1
A technician is cleaning up a warehouse and several old CRT monitors and UPS units. The technician removes the
batteries from the UPSs and wants to comply with proper disposal techniques.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to proceed with disposal of the batteries?
A. Place security In trash receptacles
B. Refer to the manufacture\\’s specific usage
C. Review the material safety data sheet
D. Conduct an Internal search of disposal techniques
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A company executive reports receiving numerous bounce-back messages to an inbox. When a technician investigates,
it appears the executive did not send any of the messages that triggered the bounce-back replies. Which of the following
is MOST likely to have occurred\\’
A. Social engineering
B. Man-in-the-mid die attack
C. Spear pNshing
D. Email hijacking
E. Logic bomb
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company wishes to secure entry and provide a reviewwable entry log to specific offices within its building. Which of
the following would be the lowest-cost solution to BEST meet the company\\’s needs?
A. Key fob
B. Biometric locks
C. Entry control roster
D. Cipher locks
Correct Answer: B
New Question, pending the Answer.

QUESTION 4
The support center for a PC manufacturer believes that the hard drive may be having an issue. The support
representative asks the technician to find out how many pages per second and what the queue length is for the hard
drive. In which of the following utilities should the technician look FIRST for this information?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Component Services
C. Device Manager
D. Drive Management
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A technician has installed a second monitor for a customer, but the desktop font sizes do not match. Which of the
following display settings should be technician adjust to correct this issue?
A. Resolution
B. Refresh rate
C. Extended monitor
D. Color depth
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
A Windows 7 machine appears to have a failure. Every time it is rebooted, the message “BOOTMGR is missing”
appears. You have previously inserted a Windows 7 installation DVD into the DVD-ROM. Please repair this failure
without overwriting the customers\\’ local user profiles.
Instructions:
1.
Launch the simulation to repair the failure
2.
Type Help in command line to show list of available commands
3.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button.

220-1002 exam questions-q6

A. Review the for all details.
Correct Answer: A
1.
Boot using Windows 7 DVD:
2.
Select “Repair your computer”
3.
Select recovery tools
4.
Chose command prompt
5.
Use the command bootrec/fixboot

220-1002 exam questions-q6-2

220-1002 exam questions-q6-3

220-1002 exam questions-q6-4

QUESTION 7
An employee recently departed under bad terms, and the client is concerned for their SOHO network security. Which of
the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Physically secure the access point
B. Change default password
C. Lower the transmission power
D. Assign static IP addresses
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
SIMULATION
A Windows 7 machine appears to have a failure. Every time it is rebooted, the message “BOOTMGR is missing”
appears.
You have previously inserted a Windows 7 installation DVD into the DVD-ROM.
Please repair this failure without overwriting the customers’ local user profiles.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the Windows recovery and repair utilities to remediate the issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

220-1002 exam questions-q8

220-1002 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer: Please see explanation.
Step 1: Choose Boot from Windows 7 DVD Step 2: Click Install Step 3: Choose Upgrade

QUESTION 9
Which of the following can be used to help recover a lost smartphone?
A. Remote support software
B. Locator application
C. NFC enabled device
D. GPS navigation software
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
A technician received 300 old desktops following a recent computer upgrade. After taking inventory of the old machines,
the technician must destroy the data on the HDDs. Which of the following would be the MOST effective method to
accomplish this task?
A. Drill
B. Hammer
C. Low-level format
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following can be applied directly to an organizational unit in Active Directory to provide security to both the
user and the machine?
A. Folder Redirection
B. Group Policy
C. Security Groups
D. Home Folder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A technician accessed a network share from a computer joined to workgroup. The technician logged in as “user1” and
directed the computer to save the username and password. Several weeks later, the technician wants to log in to this
network share using the administrator account. The computer does not prompt for a username and password, but it
automatically logs in to the network share under the “user1” account.
Which of the following would allow the technician to log in using the “administrator” username?
A. Use the command: net use Z: \\fileserver\share
B. Go to the Sync Center and disable the offline files feature.
C. Delete the “user” account for the network share in Credential Manager.
D. Join the computer and file server to a domain and delegate administrator rights to “user1”.
E. Use the Advanced Sharing options in the Network and Sharing Center and enable “turn on network discovery”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is installing Windows 7 on a PC with a RAID card. The user has verified all of the cables are connected correctly,
but the installation media does not detect any hard drives. Which of the following should the user do to help detect the
hard drives?
A. Press F8 when prompted
B. Hit the refresh button to force a re-detect
C. Enable PATA in the BIOS
D. Select load driver
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.togaware.com/linux/survivor/Load_RAID.html

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More Information About CompTIA A+ 220-1002:

  • Support operating systems.
  • Install, configure, and maintain operating systems.
  • Maintain and troubleshoot Microsoft Windows.
  • Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
  • Manage users, workstations, and shared resources.
  • Implement physical security.
  • Secure workstations and data.
  • Troubleshoot workstation security issues.
  • Support and troubleshoot mobile operating systems and applications.
  • Implement operational procedures.

Official CompTIA: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-2-220-1002-study-guide

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QUESTION 1
An RSVP session is maintained with the periodic exchange of which two message types? (Choose two.)
A. path
B. resv
C. session
D. keepalive
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
The PPP over Ethernet Discovery Stage determines which two parameters? (Choose two.)
A. session ID
B. authentication server
C. IP address of the client
D. MAC address of the ERX router
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 3
What describes the functionality of NTP when using multiple virtual routers?
A. All virtual routers can act as NTP clients and servers.
B. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client and a server.
C. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP server but all can be clients.
D. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client but all can be servers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which command prompts an ERX Edge Router to go into a loopback mode on T1 number 1 when a command is
received from a remote ERX Edge Router?
A. t1 1 remote-loopback
B. t1 1 loopback-remote
C. t1 1 loopback remote
D. t1 1 remote loopback
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
What are three ways an IP interface can be assigned to a virtual router in a PPP over ATM environment? (Choose
three.)
A. profile
B. policy list
C. domain map
D. RADIUS VSA
E. classifier ACL
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
A configuration profile contains the following commands: pppoe sessions 2 ppp authentication chap ip access-routes
Which two types of dynamic interfaces result from this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. routed 1483 interfaces
B. bridged 1483 interfaces
C. 1 PPPoA dynamic interface
D. 2 PPPoE dynamic interfaces
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
What is the maximum number of NET addresses supported on a virtual router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which device is responsible for assigning label values in an MPLS network?
A. upstream node
B. originating node
C. destination node
D. downstream node
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of BGP route aggregation? (Choose two.)
A. It can reduce routing table size.
B. It allows for optimal route selection.
C. It can reduce the number of routing updates.
D. It always shortens the attribute list for the aggregated route.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which command is used on the local router to invoke a loopback mode on a remote ERX Edge Router?
A. remote loopback
B. loopback remote
C. loopback-remote
D. remote-loopbaack
Correct Answer: B

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Juniper Associate JNCIA-SEC JN0-230 practice question q1-q13 share

QUESTION 1
What is the correct order of processing when configuring NAT rules and security policies?
A. Policy lookup > source NAT > static NAT > destination NAT
B. Source NAT > static NAT > destination NAT > policy lookup
C. Static NAT > destination NAT> policy lookup > source NAT
D. Destination NAT > policy lookup > source NAT > static NAT
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
You are concerned that unauthorized traffic is using non-standardized ports on your network. In this scenario, which
type of security feature should you implement?
A. Application firewall
B. Sky ATP
C. Firewall filters
D. Zone-based policies
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which security object defines a source or destination IP address that is used for an employee Workstation?
A. Zone
B. Screen
C. Address book entry
D. scheduler
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
You want to deploy, manage, and configure multiple SRX series devices without an on-premises software solution
which solution would satisfy this requirement?
A. Junos Space Network Director
B. Juniper Sky Enterprise
C. Juniper Sky ATP
D. Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are designing a new security policy on an SRX Series device. You must block an application and log all occurrence
of the application access attempts. In this scenario, which two actions must be enabled in the security policy? (Choose
two.)
A. Log the session initiations
B. Enable a reject action
C. Log the session closures
D. Enable a deny action
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button

newpass4sure JN0-230 exam questions-q6

Which two user roles shown in the exhibit are available be defaults? (choose two)
A. Operator
B. Jtac
C. Super-user
D. Admin
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
Which statement about IPsec is correct?
A. IPsec can provide encryption but not data integrity.
B. IPsec support packet fragmentation by intermediary devices.
C. IPsec support both tunnel and transport modes.
D. IPsec must use certificates to provide data encryption
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Which type of security policy protect restricted services from running on non-standard ports?
A. Application firewall
B. IDP
C. Sky ATP
D. antivirus
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which actions would be applied for the pre-ID default policy unified policies?
A. Redirect the session
B. Reject the session
C. Log the session
D. Silently drop the session
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which statement about IPsec is correct?
A. IPsec can be used to transport native Layer 2 packets.
B. IPsec can provide encapsulation but not encryption
C. IPsec is a standards-based protocol.
D. IPsec is used to provide data replication
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are using 802.1X in your access network consisting of EX Series switches. You recently had a failure with your
RADIUS server which resulted in authenticating client devices being denied access to the network. You want to change
this behavior so that authenticating clients are directed to a remediation VLAN.
Which RADIUS server failback setting satisfies this requirement?
A. permit
B. move
C. sustain
D. deny
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which protocol is used for port-level access control and authentication?
A. MD5
B. IPsec
C. 802.1X
D. AES
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Your network has Junos Fusion configured with MX960 routers as aggregation devices (AD) and QFX5100 switches as
satellite devices (SD). Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. All SDs connected to a single AD must use the same software version.
B. SDs are added to the AD by configuring the cascade port on the AD.
C. The Fusion extended ports are configured on the SDs.
D. The AD runs the Junos software for all its connected SDs.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure JN0-648 exam questions-q4

Which well-known community needs to be used to restrict 10.0.0.0/8 from being advertised to AS 2?
A. no-publish
B. no-advertise
C. no-export-subconfed
D. no-export
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
You are currently using VLAN IDs 2 through 300 within your Layer 2 domain and you need to configure VSTP to prevent
loops. You must ensure that all VLANs are loop free.
In this scenario, which statement is correct?
A. You must ensure that the VLANs are balanced between two different root bridges.
B. You must enable RSTP to account for all VLANs.
C. You must ensure that the bridge priority is set to the lowest value on all switches in the Layer 2 domain.
D. You must enable all VLANs, 2 through 300, under the VSTP configuration.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q6

You have configured and applied the policer shown in the exhibit to your Junos device. Which statement is true in this
scenario?
A. Traffic exceeding the committed-burst size will be marked with a loss priority of high.
B. Traffic exceeding the excess-burst size will be discarded.
C. Traffic exceeding the committed-information-rate will be rate limited.
D. Traffic exceeding the committed-burst size will be discarded.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q7

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Only 802.1X authentication will be used for devices connecting to ge-0/0/15.
B. Additional users will automatically be allowed to connect to ge-0/0/15.
C. The current device is authenticated using MAC RADIUS.
D. The current device was allowed after authentication attempts to the RADIUS server failed.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct about MSTP?
A. MSTP enables mapping multiple independent spanning-tree instances onto one physical topology.
B. MSTP enables dynamic discovery of Layer 2 neighbors.
C. MSTP dynamically manages VLAN registration in a LAN.
D. MSTP uses stacked VLAN tags to extend a Layer 2 Ethernet connection between multiple sites.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q9

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true with regards to deploying CoS? (Choose two.)
A. You should apply MF classifiers on the LAN-facing interfaces of the routers.
B. You should apply MF classifiers on the point-to-point interfaces of the routers.
C. You should apply BA classifiers on the point-to-point interfaces of the routers.
D. You should apply BA classifiers on the LAN-facing interfaces of the routers.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q10

Referring to the exhibit, the source is currently sending multicast traffic using group 224.1.1.1, which is being received
by R1. R2 is not receiving PIM register messages.
What would be the cause of this problem?
A. Tunnel services have not been enabled on R1.
B. All routers have not been configured with the same Auto-RP discovery group.
C. R5 has not received an IGMP report of 224.1.1.1.
D. A(*,G) tree has not been built yet.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are designing a Layer 3 fabric underlay using EBGP. You will implement an EVPN-signaled VXLAN overlay on the
Layer 3 fabric.
In this scenario, what must you do in the underlay to ensure that the VXLAN overlay will be able to function properly?
A. The underlay should advertise the host-connected interfaces on all leaf devices.
B. Each device in the underlay should advertise its loopback address.
C. The underlay should be configured with a separate VRF for each potential tenant.
D. The underlay should support the PIM protocol.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Referring to the exhibit, each node in the IP fabric is peering to its directly attached neighbor using EBGP. Each node is
peering using physical interface IP addresses. Leaf 2 and Leaf 3 are advertising the 10.1.1/24 network into EBGP.
Spine 2 must be configured so that it can load-share traffic destined to the 10 1.1/24 network over both next-hop A and
next-hop B.

newpass4sure jn0-681 exam questions-q2

Which two actions must be performed to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use a load-balancing policy applied to the forwarding table.
B. Use multipath multiple-AS.
C. Use advertise-inactive.
D. Use multihop.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 3
When using EBGP as the underlay protocol for your IP fabric architecture, which two statements are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Spine nodes only peer to leaf nodes.
B. Leaf nodes peer to both spine and leaf nodes.
C. Leaf nodes only peer to spine nodes.
D. Spine nodes peer to both leaf and spine nodes.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 4
You are asked to manage the oversubscription ratio of your spine and leaf IP fabric. You determine that you are at a 3:1
ratio of downstream to upstream traffic and must achieve a 1:1 ratio.
In this scenario, which two actions would you take to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry traffic.
B. Reduce the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry traffic.
C. Increase the number of spine nodes in your design.
D. Reduce the number of leaf nodes in your design.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about a Data Center Interconnect over an IP network?
A. Layer 2 data must traverse a point-to-point link.
B. Layer 2 data must traverse an MPLS LSP.
C. Layer 2 data must be encapsulated.
D. Layer 3 data must be encapsulated.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
What happens when a packet is encapsulated by a VXLAN before being placed in the overlay?
A. The QoS markings are placed in the VXLAN header.
B. The VLAN-ID is placed in the VXLAN header.
C. A VNI that maps to the VLAN-ID is placed in the VXLAN header.
D. The TTL is decremented by two and placed in the VXLAN header.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Referring to the exhibit, Host 1 and Host 3 have exchanged traffic.

newpass4sure jn0-681 exam questions-q7

In this scenario, which statement is true?
A. Leaf 2 does not learn Host 1\\’s MAC address until Host 1 and Host 2 send traffic to each other.
B. Leaf 2 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address through periodic updates from Spine 2.
C. Leaf 2 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address when Host 3 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address.
D. Leaf 2 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address when Leaf 1 queries Host 1.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which protocol is used between VCF member devices to create a loop-free topology?
A. LLDP
B. MSTP
C. RSTP
D. VCCP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
You are deploying a VXLAN using EVPN signalling overlay network in your new data center. You are able to establish
your MP-BGP peering sessions and see your EVPN routes, but traffic will not traverse the VXLAN using EVPN
signalling overlay network.
What is a solution to this problem?
A. Increase the MTU on the logical VTEP source interface of all devices participating in VXLAN using EVPN signaling.
B. Enable the mtu-discovery feature on the MP-BGP peering sessions between all VXLANs using EVPN signalling
peers.
C. Increase the protocol MTU on all devices participating in VXLAN using EVPN signalling.
D. Increase the physical MTU on all ports on all devices participating in VXLAN using EVPN signaling.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are configuring VXLAN, and you must ensure that all switches for the multicast groups advertise their existence and
learn about other VTEPs.
In this scenario, which protocol will accomplish this task?
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. EVPN
D. PIM
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCNP 350-701 Practice Test 1-13

QUESTION 1
What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?
A. Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.
B. A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.
C. Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.
D. Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
What must be used to share data between multiple security products?
A. Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud
B. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
C. Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
D. Cisco Rapid Threat Containment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer
also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or
WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2
instance in Amazon Web Services.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure 350-701 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about VRF-Aware Cisco Firewall are true? (Choose three)
A. It supports both global and per-VRF commands and DoS parameters.
B. It enables service providers to deploy firewalls on customer devices.
C. It can generate syslog messages that are visible only to individual VPNs.
D. It can support VPN networks with overlapping address ranges without NAT.
E. It enables service providers to implement firewalls on PE devices.
F. It can run as more than one instance.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 7
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. WSA
B. Firepower
C. FireSIGHT
D. ASA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?
A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-crc4.html#wp6039879000

QUESTION 9
Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS
B. Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured
C. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises
D. Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured
E. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/adaptive-security-virtual-appliance-asav/whitepaper-c11-740505.html


QUESTION 10

newpass4sure 350-701 exam questions-q10

Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of the configuration?
A. Traffic from the DMZ network is redirected.
B. Traffic from the inside network is redirected.
C. All TCP traffic is redirected.
D. Traffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d


QUESTION 12
An sneaky employee using an Android phone on your network has disabled DHCP, enabled it\\’s firewall, modified it\\’s
HTTP User-Agent header, to tool ISE into profiling it as a Windows 10 machine connected to the wireless network. This
user
is now able to get authorization for unrestricted network access using his Active Directory credentials, as your policy
states that a Windows device using AD credentials should be able to get full network access. Whereas, an Android
device
should only get access to the Web proxy.
Which two steps can you take to avoid this sort of rogue behavior? (Choose two)
A. Create an authentication rule that should only allow session with a specific HTTP User-Agent header
B. Modify the authorization policy to only allow Windows machines that have passed Machine Authentication to get full
network access
C. Add an authorization policy before the Windows authorization policy that redirects a user with a static IP to a web
portal for authentication
D. Chain an authorization policy to the Windows authorization policy that performs additional NMAP scans to verify the
machine type, before allowing access
E. Only allow certificate-based authentication from Windows endpoints, such as EAP-TLS or PEAP- TLS.Should the
endpoint use MSCHAPv2 (EAP or PEAP), the user should be only given restricted access
F. Perform CoA to push a restricted access when the machine is acquiring address using DHCP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention
System?
A. security intelligence
B. impact flags
C. health monitoring
D. URL filtering
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about Multi Line Agent mode in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment are true?
(Choose three.)
A. It monitors and reports calls on all lines on the phone.
B. Allows Unified CCE to support Join Across Line and Direct Transfer Across Line features on the phone.
C. It monitors and reports of calls on only one line on the phone.
D. It requires a busy trigger of 2 (call waiting), although calls cannot be forwarded to other extensions on the phone
when busy.
E. It requires a maximum of two call appearances.
F. Shared lines are supported on ACD lines but not on non-ACD lines.
G. Call Park is supported on ACD and non-ACD lines.
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Finesse CLI command provides the license MAC address?
A. show network status
B. show net status
C. show status
D. show network detail
E. show net detail
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

newpass4sure 500-450 exam questions-q3

In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, an agent with single line 89XX hard phone is having trouble logging in to the
desktop. The error message highlighted has been found in the Jgw1log file. Which option describes the likely cause of
this error?
A. MAC address of the phone not associated with PG user.
B. PG user does not have “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones supporting ConnectedXfer and conf user group” role.
C. In the peripheral gateway, Agent Phone Line Control not set to “All Lines”.
D. Phone Join Across Lines feature is enabled.
E. Phone line does not have the Maximum Number of Calls and Busy Trigger setting set to 2 and 1 respectively.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Whisper Announcements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The first number calls the ringtone service that the caller hears while the Whisper Announcement plays to the agent.
The CVP default for this number is 92929292.
B. The second number calls the Whisper Announcement itself. The CVP default for this number is 9191919100.
C. The second number calls the Whisper Announcement itself. The CVP default for this number is 9292929200.
D. As an option, set the dial plan with 9191*.
E. As an option, set the dial plan with 9292*.
F. The Whisper Announcement dialed number is always an extension of the Ringtone dialed number with an extra two
zeros at the end.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about when you install/deploy Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VMs on VMware ESXi
hosts are true? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level.
B. You cannot enable hyper-threading, but you can over-subscribe the vCPU and vRAM.
C. You can enable hyper-threading at the Guest OS level.
D. You can enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level, but you cannot over-subscribe the vCPU and vRAM.
E. You cannot enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 6
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could
increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance
from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would
reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which list of scripting objects is valid in a Consider If formula for Precision Queue?
A. Call, Attribute, SkillGroup, Call Type
B. Call, PQ, SkillGroup, Call Type
C. Call Type, PQ, Attribute, Call
D. Call, Call Type, Proficiency, SkillGroup
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two microapps can capture DTMF from the caller in the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Play Media and Get Speech
B. Get Speech and Menu
C. Menu and Play Media
D. Menu and Get Digits
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 9
While a voice gateway accesses webservices elements, it times out and throws an error.badfetch event. Which two
options are common ways to reduce such errors? (Choose two.)
A. Set FetchAudioDelay timeout.
B. Set FetchAudioMinimum timeout.
C. Set mediafetchDelay timeout.
D. Set mediafetchDelay.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which two actions are needed to enable VXML application detail reporting? (Choose two.)
A. Deploy CVP reporting server then associate CVP Call Server to the CVP reporting server.
B. Set user.vxml_detail_rpt.rpt_Serv to value 1.
C. Set user.vxml_detail_rpt.rpt_Serv to value 0.
D. Enable Report Data Exclusive Filtering.
E. Enable reporting for CVP VXML Server as well as VXML Application detail.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 11
Which command is issued to check the replication status of a Cisco Unified Intelligence Center cluster?
A. utils dbreplication
B. utils dbreplication runtimestate
C. utils dbreplication summary
D. show dbreplication status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which CLI command is run on Cisco Unified Intelligence Center to check database replication?
A. utils dbreplication status
B. show dbreplication status
C. utils replication status
D. show replication status
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which three options dictate that MicroApps are not sufficient and require Call Studio for Call Flow scripting? (Choose
three.)
A. Courtesy Callback
B. recording a .wav file
C. FTP a file
D. Emergency Contact Center closure
E. agent whisper
F. IVR Outbound option
G. agent greeting
Correct Answer: ABC

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Microsoft Power Platform PL-900 exam questions

QUESTION 1
A distribution company has multiple warehouses.
Tax rates charged on sales orders need to be calculated based on locality and region.
You need to recommend a cost-effective solution that can be implemented quickly.
What should you recommend?
A. Check AppSource for a tax add-on.
B. Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance for tax table changes.
C. Implement the Common Data Model.
D. Run a Power BI report.
E. Write scripts and code tax updates.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/indirect-taxes-overview

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A company needs to create a series of mobile applications to empower their field engineers to accomplish several tasks
with varying degrees of complexity.
Match each option to its answer.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate app type from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each app
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pl-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q2-2

Box 1: canvas Both model-driven and canvas apps allow you to easily build business apps. They both share access to
the Common Data Service providing standard and custom entities. Canvas apps start with your user experience,
crafting a highly tailored interface with the power of a blank canvas and connecting it to 200 data sources. Canvas apps
can be built for web, mobile, and tablet applications. Model-driven apps start with your data model – building up from the
shape of your core business data and processes in the Common Data Service to model forms, views, and other
components. Model-driven apps automatically generate great UI that is responsive across devices. Box 2: model-driven
Reference: https://powerapps.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/introducing-model-driven-apps/

QUESTION 3
A toy company creates a text classification model in AI Builder to monitor customer feedback for specific key words.
When negative feedback is received for a toy, the company wants to proactively perform engineering reviews for the toy
and schedule additional training sessions for workers who produce the toy.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a canvas app.
B. Implement the Virtual Agent.
C. Build a Microsoft Flow.
D. Use the Common Data Model.
Correct Answer: AC
A (not D): AI Builder comes with:
A ready-to-use business card reader available in canvas as well as in model-driven apps.
Business card reader (Canvas)
Business card reader (Model-driven)
Additional canvas components to leverage your AI Builder form processing or object detection models canvas apps.
C: Use the results from your AI model across Power Platform to create end-to-end solutions that meet your business
needs, even if you have no coding skills. For example, create a flow that automates document processing in Power
Automate, or an app created with PowerApps that predicts whether a supplier will be out of compliance.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/use-in-powerapps-overview 

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
A company plans to use Power Apps to connect to a series of custom services. There are no connectors available for
the custom services.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q4-2

Box 1: Yes
Only if you would like to share your connector with all users of Logic Apps, Microsoft Flow, and PowerApps, you can
submit your connector for Microsoft certification. Microsoft will review your connector.
Box 2: Yes
Connectors created in Microsoft Flow are available in PowerApps. Likewise, connectors created in PowerApps are
available in Microsoft Flow.
Box 3: No
If you would like to share your connector with all users of Logic Apps, Microsoft Flow, and PowerApps, you can submit
your connector for Microsoft certification. Microsoft will review your connector.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/connectors/custom-connectors/

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A company uses Power Apps.
You need to perform administrative tasks for the company.
Which admin centers should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate admin centers to the correct requirements. Each
admin center may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q5

Box 1: Azure Active Directory
Create the company users in the Azure Active Directory.
Box 2: Power Apps admin center
In the Power Apps Admin center, manage environments that you\\’ve created and those for which you have been added
to the Environment Admin or System Administrator role. From the admin center, you can perform these administrative
actions:
Create environments.
Rename environments.
Add or remove a user or group from either the Environment Admin or Environment Maker role.
Etc.
Incorrect Answers:
Use the Dynamics 365 admin center to review the status of your apps and solutions, apply updates, and manage your
Dynamics 365 instances, solutions, and apps.
The Power BI admin portal enables you to manage a Power BI tenant for your organization. The portal includes items
such as usage metrics, access to the Microsoft 365 admin center, and settings.
Note: You use the Microsoft 365 admin center to create user accounts for every user who needs access to model-driven
apps in Dynamics 365, such as Dynamics 365 Sales and Customer Service.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/environments-administration
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/marketing/dynamics-365-admin-center
https://powerapps.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/introducing-admin-center-for-powerapps/

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company uses a third party application and an approval process via email. At the end of the month, the IT department
enters the data into Microsoft Excel to create pivot charts.
The Excel pivot charts must use the same data source as Dynamics 365 Field Service to generate charts and reports.
You need to recommend a solution.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q6-2

Box 1: Dynamics 365 Workflow notifications
You can configure the system to send email messages to users when workflow-related events occur.
Note:
1. Go to Navigation pane > Modules > System administration > Users > Users.
2. In the list, find and select the desired record.
3. On the Action pane, click User options.
4. Click the Workflow tab. Make sure that the Notifications section is expanded. In the Notifications section, you can
specify how you want the user to be notified about workflow-related events.
Box 2: Dynamics 365 Field Service
Supply Chain Management enables synchronization of business processes between Dynamics 365 Supply Chain
Management and Dynamics 365 Field Service. The integration scenarios are configured by using extensible Data
integrator templates and Common Data Service to enable the synchronization of business processes. Standard
templates
can be used to create custom integration projects, where additional standard and custom fields and entities can be
mapped to adjust the integration and meet specific business needs.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/organization-administration/tasks/usersreceive-workflow-related-email-messages

QUESTION 7
You create a business rule on contact entity to enforce the requirement that users must enter either a telephone number, fax number, or an email when creating a new record.
The company decides to remove fax number from the condition.
You need to update the business rule.
What are two ways of achieving the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Save a copy of the rule and change the condition. Deactivate and delete the original rule.
B. Deactivate the business rule and change the condition.
C. Take a snapshot of the business rule and change the condition.
D. Change the condition and activate the change.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/working-with-rules

QUESTION 8
You need to use Microsoft Flow to perform data-management tasks when users interact with the sales opportunities in
Dynamics 365.
Which three types of triggers can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. record requested
B. record deletion
C. record creation
D. record updated
E. record selected
Correct Answer: BCD
Triggers like When a record is created, When a record is updated, and When a record is deleted initiate your flow within
a few minutes of the event occurring. In rare cases, your flow can take up to 2 hours to trigger.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/connection-dynamics365

QUESTION 9
You create a Power BI dashboard that displays data from Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement.
You need to share the Power BI dashboard with coworkers.What are three possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Power BI workspace and grant coworkers permissions.
B. Publish the dashboard as an app to your coworkers.
C. Export the data into Common Data Service for others to manipulate in Power BI.
D. Export the data to Microsoft Excel for coworkers to import and view in Power BI.
E. Embed reports in your company\\’s internal web portal.
Correct Answer: ABE
A: Basic Sharing for Dashboards and Reports through a workspace is the most common way of sharing the Power BI
content. Basic Sharing is very simple and easy to use method. You can simply click on the Share button in the
dashboard or report, and then share it with other users.

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q9

B: Apps are great sharing method for multiple environment, and best way of sharing for users in production
environment.
Power BI App is the solution for multiple environment approach. With Power BI App, your development environment
(workspace), and user environment (App) are isolated from each other.
Note: If you are using SharePoint online as a portal for document management and some other reasons already, then
consider using Embed in SharePoint Online feature of Power BI reports. This method is secure and you can share the
report only with Power BI users you want.
E: Sometimes, you don\\’t need a secure way of sharing, you may search for an easy and free way of sharing, and your
content is not confidential or sensitive. Publish to web is your friend in such situation. This is the only free way of sharing
in Power BI, but be aware that this method is not secure.
Publish to web method, gives you an embed code, which you can use in any web pages to embed the Power BI report
in it
Reference:
https://radacad.com/power-bi-sharing-methods-comparison-all-in-one-review

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
A company plans to use Microsoft Flow to automate tasks.
Match each flow type to its function. To answer, drag the appropriate flow type from the column on the left to its
description on the right. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q10

Box 1: automated
Automated flows start with an event or trigger, such as an email being received. These also support a multitude of
actions in the 200+ Flow connectors.
Box 2: business process
The business process flow that creates stages or screens that enforce a certain sequence of steps. It collects data from
users for each step in the stage and can kick off automated workflows.
Box 3: scheduled
Scheduled flows run regular reports that are sent out to a team and summarize everything that\\’s happened in the past
week. This includes everything from simple daily scheduling to more complex scheduling like “every 3rd Monday.”
Box 4: instant
An instant flow is triggered when you click a button inside of the Flow mobile app, SharePoint, Dynamics, PowerApps,
or Excel that passes context directly into your flow.
Note: There are four different Flow types that you can choose from when starting out. You can create a scheduled flow,
automated flow, instant flow, or a business process flow.
Reference:
https://www.avepoint.com/blog/office-365/office-365-automation/

QUESTION 11
A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management.
When a sales order is created for one of the customers that a specific user manages, a Microsoft Outlook task must be
created to remind the user to perform any follow up activities that are required.
You need to implement the functionality to create Outlook tasks.
Which two features should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. AI Builder
B. Power Apps
C. Business Events
D. Microsoft Flow
E. Common Data Service
Correct Answer: CD
Business events in Microsoft Power Automate
Business events can be consumed in Microsoft Power Automate via the application connector. The connector has a
trigger that is named when a business event occurs. This trigger can be used to subscribe to any of the business events
that are available in the target instance of the application.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/business-events/business-events-flow

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A business is evaluating AI Builder.
Which actions can you perform?
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q12

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/create-text-classification-model https://radacad.com/objectdetector-app-with-ai-builder-and-power-apps

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You need to explain the major components of the Common Data Model (CDM) and their functions.
Match each term to its definition.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each term
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q13

Box 1: Microsoft Power Platform
Power Platform combines the robust power of PowerApps, PowerBI, and Microsoft Flow into one powerful business
application platform – providing quick and easy app building and data insights. Each component of the Microsoft Power
Platform is built on the Common Data Service for Apps. Each component is dynamic by itself, but brilliant and
masterful when combined.
The Microsoft Power platform brings all your data together into a common data model.
Box 2: Entities
An entity is a set of records used to store data, similar to how a table stores data within a database.
Reference:
https://community.dynamics.com/365/b/encloud9dynamicss365crm/posts/an-introduction-to-the-microsoft-powerplatform
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/common-data-service/data-platform-intro

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Practical Study | ADM-201 Latest Exam Questions And Answers

QUESTION 1
What can an agent do when resolving a case? Choose 2 answers
A. Email articles to a customer
B. Create an article upon closing a case
C. Assign data categories to a case
D. Attach only one article to a case
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which of the following make a User record Unique?
A. Profile
B. Email Id
C. Username
D. Role
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What can be reviewed using the process visualizer?
A. Sales Processes
B. Approval Processes
C. Support Processes
D. Workflow Rules
Correct Answer: B
 

QUESTION 4
The User Interface Settings can be adjusted for individual users.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Multiple record types may be created for every tab, with the exception of
A. Home
B. Accounts
C. Forecasting
D. Opportunity
E. Reports
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
What are two sources from which cases can be created?
A. Web-to-Lead
B. Web-to-Web
C. Email-to-Case
D. Connect for Outlook
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Workflow rules on custom objects are automatically deleted if the custom object is deleted.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Lookup relationship fields are available in Personal Edition
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When are data validation rules executed?
A. A User Saves a Record
B. Before records are imported
C. Using the Data Loader and/or other API tools
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
When you define a Data Validation Rule, what must you also define?
A. The error message.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Org wants to create a follow-up task based on a field change. Which is the best way to do it?
A. Workflows
B. Rollup summary
C. Assignment rules
D. Record types
E. Workflow approvals
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which objects have built-in import wizards?
A. Accounts
B. Contacts
C. Leads
D. Solutions
E. Custom Objects
Correct Answer: ABCDE

QUESTION 13
What is the significance of Primary Master?Detail Relationship in a Junction Object?
A. Look and Feel is inherited from the Primary Master Object
B. Record Ownership is inherited from the Primary Master Object
C. No such Significance
D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Resize the logical volume vo and its filesystem to 290 MB. Make sure that the filesystem contents remain intact.
Note: Partitions are seldom exactly the same size requested, so a size within the range of 260 MB to 320 MiB is
acceptable.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
df -hT lvextend -L +100M /dev/vg0/vo lvscan xfs_growfs /home/ // home is LVM mounted directory Note: This step is
only need to do in our practice environment, you do not need to do in the real exam resize2fs /dev/vg0/vo // Use this
comand to update in the real exam df -hT OR e2fsck -f/dev/vg0/vo umount /home resize2fs /dev/vg0/vo required
partition capacity such as 100M lvreduce -l 100M /dev/vg0/vo mount /dev/vg0/vo /home df –Ht

QUESTION 2
Add admin group and set gid=600
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# groupadd -g 600 admin

QUESTION 3
A YUM source has been provided in the http://instructor.example.com/pub/rhel6/dvd Configure your system and can be
used normally.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
/etc/yum.repos.d/base.repo [base] name=base baseurl=http://instructor.example.com/pub/rhel6/dvd gpgcheck=0 yum
list

QUESTION 4
Configure your Host Name, IP Address, Gateway and DNS. Host name: station.domain40.example.com
/etc/sysconfig/network hostname=abc.com hostname abc.com IP Address:172.24.40.40/24 Gateway172.24.40.1
DNS:172.24.40.1
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# cd /etc/syscofig/network-scripts/ # ls # vim ifcfg-eth0 (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS)
IPADDR=172.24.40.40 GATEWAY=172.24.40.1 DNS1=172.24.40.1 # vim /etc/sysconfig/network (Configure Host
Name) HOSTNAME= station.domain40.example.com OR Graphical Interfaces: System->Preference->Network
Connections (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) Vim /etc/sysconfig/network (Configure Host Name)

QUESTION 5
Configure autofs to automount the home directories of LDAP users as follows:
host.domain11.example.com NFS-exports /home to your system.
This filesystem contains a pre-configured home directory for the user ldapuser11 ldapuser11\\’s home directory is
host.domain11.example.com /rhome/ldapuser11 ldapuser11\\’s home directory should be automounted locally beneath
/rhome
as /rhome/ldapuser11
Home directories must be writable by their users
ldapuser11\\’s password is \\’password\\’.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
vim /etc/auto.master /rhome /etc/auto.misc wq! # vim /etc/auto.misc ldapuser11 –rw,sync
host.domain11.example.com:/rhome/ldpauser11 :wq! #service autofs restart
service autofs reload
chkconfig autofs on
su -ldapuser11 Login ldapuser with home directory # exit

QUESTION 6
YUM repository has been provided at http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server. Configure your system
to use this location as a default repository.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
vim/etc/yum.repos/base.repo [base] name=base baseurl= http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server
gpgcheck=0 enable=1 Save and Exit Use yum list for validation, the configuration is correct if list the package
information. If the Yum configuration is not correct then maybe cannot answer the following questions.

QUESTION 7
Create User Account.
Create the following user, group and group membership:
Adminuser group
User natasha, using adminuser as a sub group
User Harry, also using adminuser as a sub group
User sarah, can not access the SHELL which is interactive in the system, and is not a member of adminuser,
natashaharrysarah password is redhat.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
groupadd adminuser useradd natasha -G adminuser useradd haryy -G adminuser useradd sarah -s /sbin/nologin
Passwd user name // to modify password or echo redhat | passwd –stdin user name id natasha // to view user group.

QUESTION 8
Create a backup file named /root/backup.tar.bz2, which contains the contents of /usr/local, bar must use the bzip2
compression.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
cd /usr/local
tar -jcvf /root/backup.tar.bz2*
mkdir /test
tar -jxvf /root/backup.tar.bz2 -C /test/

QUESTION 9
Install a FTP server, and request to anonymous download from /var/ftp/pub catalog. (it needs you to configure yum
direct to the already existing file server.)
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# cd /etc/yum.repos.d # vim local.repo [local] name=local.repo baseurl=file:///mnt enabled=1 gpgcheck=0 # yum
makecache # yum install -y vsftpd # service vsftpd restart # chkconfig vsftpd on # chkconfig –list vsftpd # vim
/etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.conf anonymous_enable=YES

QUESTION 10
Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the shared directory
is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
Start the nfs service: service nfs start
Start the portmap service: service portmap start
Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
Check that default firewall is running on system?
If running flush the iptables using iptables -F and stop the iptables service.

QUESTION 11
SELinux must be running in the Enforcing mode.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
getenforce // Check the current mode of SELinux // SELinux runs in enforcing mode // Check getenforce 1 getenforce
vim /etc/selinux/config selinux=enforcing // To temporarily enable SELinux wg sestatus

QUESTION 12
Your System is configured in 192.168.0.0/24 Network and your nameserver is 192.168.0.254. Make successfully
resolve to server1.example.com.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
nameserver is specified in question,
1.
Vi /etc/resolv.conf nameserver 192.168.0.254
2.
host server1.example.com

QUESTION 13
Configure your Host Name, IP Address, Gateway and DNS. Host name: dtop5.dn.ws.com IP Address: 172.28.10.5/4
Gateway: 172.28.10.1 DNS: 172.28.10.1
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
Configure Host Name
vim /etc/sysconfig/network NETWORKING=yes HOSTNAME=dtop5.dn.ws.comGATEWAY=172.28.10.1
2. Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS Configure the network by Network Manager:

RHCSA EX200 exam questions-q13

Note: Please remember to choose two options:
Connect automatically
Available to all users Click “Apply”, save and exit, and restart your network services: # Service network restart
3. Validate these profiles: a) Check gateway: # vim / etc / sysconfig / network NETWORKING=yes
HOSTNAME=dtop5.dn.ws.com GATEWAY=172.28.10.1 b) Check Host Name: # vim /etc/hosts

RHCSA EX200 exam questions-q13-2

c) Check DNS: # vim /etc/resolv.conf
# Generated by NetworkManager Search dn.ws.com Nameserver 172.28.10.1 d) Check Gateway: # vim
/etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0

RHCSA EX200 exam questions-q13-3

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QUESTION 1
The chief financial officer (CFO) releases new guidelines that specify that only users from finance are allowed to run FinanceApp1.
Users in the Marketing OU report that they can run FinanceApp1.
  You need to ensure that only users in the Finance OU can run FinanceApp1. What should you do?
A. In the AllComputers GPO, create a new AppLocker executable rule.
B. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a new Windows Installer rule.
C. In the AllComputers GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new hash rule.
D. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new path rule.
070-685 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Chapter 10 p 467- 468
Understanding the difference between SRP and AppLocker You might want to deploy application control policies onto Windows operating systems earlier than Windows Server2008R2 or Windows7. You can use AppLocker policies only on the supported editions of Windows Server2008R2 and Windows7, but you can use SRP on supported editions of Windows beginning with Windows Server2003 and WindowsXP.
QUESTION 2
Users in the ERPApp1 pilot project report intermittent application issues. You need to consolidate all application events for the users in a central location. What should you do?
A. Configure event subscriptions.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
070-685 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

A. Configure event subscriptions. Event Viewer enables you to view events on a single remote computer. However, troubleshooting an issue might require you to examine a set of events stored in multiple logs on multiple computers. Windows 7 includes the ability to collect copies of events from multiple remote computers and store them locally. To specify which events to collect, you create an
event subscription. Among other details, the subscription specifies exactly which events will be collected and in which log they will be stored locally. Once a subscription is active and events are being collected, you can view and manipulate these forwarded events as you would any other locally stored events.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
You can create a filter that includes events from multiple event logs that satisfy specified criteria. You can then name and save that filter as a custom view. To apply the filter associated with a saved custom view, you navigate to the custom view in the console tree and click its name.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
You can create a custom Data Collector Set containing performance counters and configure alert activities based on the performance counters exceeding or dropping below limits you define. After creating the Data Collector Set, you must configure the actions the system will take when the alert criteria are met. Membership in the local Performance Log Users or Administrators group, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete these procedures.

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QUESTION 3
The help desk reports that users in the Marketing OU print draft documents, e-mails, and other miscellaneous documents on Printer2. You need to recommend a solution so that marketing users print documents to Printer1 by default.  What should you do?
A. Enable printer pooling.
B. Configure Group Policy Preferences.
C. Modify the priorities of the shared printers.
D. Modify the permissions of the shared printers.
070-685 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Action: This type of preference item provides a choice of four actions: Create, Replace, Update, and Delete. The behavior of the preference item varies with the action selected and whether the printer connection already exists. Set this printer as the default printer – Select this check box to make the shared printer connection the default Windows printer for the current user. Only if a local printer is not present – Select this check box to bypass changing the default printer if there is a local printer configured on the computer. This setting is unavailable until you select the Set this printer as the default printer check box. Note: A local printer is any printer that is not connected to a shared network printer. This includes physical printers connected to parallel, serial, and USB ports, TCP/IP printers, and virtual printers installed through software. To create a new Shared Printer preference item Open the Group Policy Management Console. Right-click the Group Policy object (GPO) that should contain the new preference item, and then click Edit. In the console tree under User Configuration, expand the Preferences folder, and then expand the Control Panel Settings folder.
Right-click the Printers node, point to New, and select Shared Printer. In the New Shared Printer Properties dialog box, select an Action for Group Policy to perform. Enter shared printer settings for Group Policy to configure or remove. Click the Common tab, configure any options, and then type your comments in the Description box. Click OK. The new preference item appears in the details pane.
QUESTION 4
The Office1 network link is brought offline for emergency maintenance. Users in Office2 and Office3 report that they cannot connect to the wireless network. You need to recommend changes to ensure that users in all offices can connect to the wireless network if a WAN link fails. What should you recommend?
A. that redundant DHCP scopes be created
B. that additional RADIUS servers be deployed
C. that universal group caching be implemented
D. that additional default gateways be configured
070-685 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Lab 1.1: Network Workstation Client Configuration

5

Lab 1.1: Network Workstation Client Configuration
In order for two computers to communicate in a TCP/IPv4 network (IPv6 is discussed later, in Lab 1.3), both computers must have a unique Internet Protocol (IP) address. An IP address has four octets. The IP address is divided into a network address and a host address. The subnet mask identifies which portion of the IP address is the network address and which portion is the host address. On a local area network (LAN), each computer must have the same network address and a different host address. To communicate outside the LAN, using different network IP addresses, the use of a default gateway is required. To connect to a TCP/IP network, normally four items are configured: the IP address (this is both the network portion and the host portion), the subnet mask, the IP address for a Domain Name System (DNS) server, and the IP address for the gateway machine. To communicate only within a LAN, you need only the IP address and subnet mask. To communicate with other networks, you need the default gateway. If you want to be able to connect to different sites and networks using their domain names, then you need to have the address of a DNS server as well. When communicating between machines on different networks, packets are sent via the default gateway on the way into and out of the LAN. The routing is done using (Layer 3) IP addresses. If the computer is on the same network, then the IP address gets resolved to a (Layer 2) Media Access Control (MAC) address to communicate with the computer. MAC addresses are hard-coded onto the network card by the company that made the card. The ability to retrieve and change your IP configuration is an important skill. In this lab, you will use the ipconfig command in Windows and the ifconfig command in Linux to view the configuration information. You will then use the Local Area Connection Properties window to change the IP address in Windows and use ifconfig to change the IP address in Linux. Computers use both MAC and IP addresses to communicate with one another across networks. In this lab, two computers will “talk” to each other via ping messages. You will then modify the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table of one computer to demonstrate the relationship between the IP and MAC addresses for a machine. The ping (Packet Internet Groper) program is a basic utility that is used for testing the connectivity between two computers. This message name was derived from the sound that sonar on a submarine makes, and is used in a similar way. A “signal” or request is sent out to probe for the existence of the target along a fixed “distance.” The distance between two computers can be measured using time to live (TTL). Ping operates using Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to test for connectivity; so in cases where ICMP is restricted, the ping utility may not be useful. Ping is usually implemented using ICMP echo messages, although other alternatives exist. When you use the ping command in this lab, you will see that although you are using the IP address as the target of the ping, it is actually the MAC address that is used to communicate with that computer. IP addresses are used to transfer data from one network to another, whereas MAC addresses are used to send information from one device to another on the same network. It is ARP that resolves IP addresses to their associated MAC addresses. ARP is a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) tool that is used to modify the ARP cache. The ARP cache contains recently resolved MAC addresses of IP hosts on the network.

6

Chapter 1: Workstation Network Configuration and Connectivity

As you progress through the labs, you will see how a computer obtains both MAC addresses and IP addresses in order to communicate. The question you should be considering is “how does the computer know that the information it is getting is correct?”

Learning Objectives
After completing this lab, you will be able to

Retrieve IP address configuration information via the command line. List the switches that can be added to the ipconfig (Windows) or ifconfig (Linux) command to increase its functionality. Use the Windows graphical user interface (GUI) to configure a network card to use a given IP address. Determine your machine’s MAC address. Determine your machine’s assigned network resources, including its DNS address and gateway address. Use the ifconfig (Linux) command to configure a network card with a given IP address. Understand how to test network connectivity between two computers. List the options that can be added to the ping command to increase its functionality. Use the arp command to view and manage the ARP cache on a computer.

S 10 minutes
Lab 1.1w: Windows Client Configuration
Materials and Setup
You will need the following:

??

Windows XP Professional Windows 2003 Server

Lab Steps at a Glance
Step 1: Start the Windows 2003 Server and Windows XP Professional PCs. Log on only to the Windows XP machine. Step 2: View the network card configuration using the config command.

Lab 1.1w: Windows Client Configuration

7

Step 3:

Change the IP address of the Windows XP machine.

Step 4: Verify the new IP address. Use the ipconfig command to verify that the IP address has changed. Step 5: Step 6: Step 7: Step 8: Change the IP address of the Windows XP machine back to the original address. Ping the Windows 2003 Server machine from the Windows XP PC. View and modify the ARP table. Log off from the Windows XP PC.

Lab Steps
Step 1: Start the Windows 2003 Server and Windows XP Professional PCs. Log on only to the Windows XP machine. To log on to the Windows XP PC:
1. 2.

At the Login screen, click the Admin icon. In the password text box, type the password password and press enter.

Step 2: View the network card configuration using the ipconfig command. On the Windows XP PC, you will view the network card configuration using ipconfig. This utility allows administrators to view and modify network card settings.
1. 2.

To open the command prompt, choose Start | Run, type cmd in the Open field, and press enter. At the command prompt, type ipconfig /? and press enter.
a.

Observe the options available for ipconfig.

b. Which options do you think would be most useful for an administrator? c. 3.

Which option would you use to obtain an IP configuration from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server?

Type ipconfig and press enter, as shown in Figure 1-1.
a.

What is your IP address?

b. What is your subnet mask? 4.

Type ipconfig /all and press enter.
a.

Observe the new information.

b. What is the MAC address of your computer? c. 5.

What is your DNS server address?

Type exit and press enter.

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 Microsoft 70-410 PDF 

QQ截图20170301115359

Microsoft 70-410  PDF Install and configure servers (15–20%)

  • Install servers
    • Plan for a server installation; plan for server roles; plan for a server upgrade; install Server Core; optimize resource utilization by using Features on Demand; migrate roles from previous versions of Windows Server
      • Plan for a Server Installation 
    •  Plan using Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
      • Plan for Server Roles
    •  Familiarize yourself with the available Server Roles
      • Plan for a Server Upgrade
      • Server Core Overview
      • Install Server Core
    • from the initial install choose Windows Server 2012 Server Core or if you originally installed the full GUI from PS run cmd Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra, Server-Gui-Shell -restart  
      • Migrate Roles from Previous Versions of Windows Server
      • Features on Demand
    • reduce footprint by removing payload of unused items. PS cmd example Uninstall-WindowsFeature –name gpmc –vhd “vhdpathfile” -remove
      • Install, Use and Remove Windows Server Migration Tools
      • Demo: Installing Server Migration Tools
    • install feature (not role), then from cmd line cd to ServerMigrationTools and use SmigDeploy (with appropriate cmds) to migrate the feature from previous version of Windows Server Install servers

70-410 pdf

Microsoft certification 70-410 pdf best exam questions and answers(#16-26):

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware
failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What
should you do?

70-410 pdf

A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the
forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.

What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is
named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by
using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU)
named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012
R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a
member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers.
What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

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A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features.

D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control   Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install Windows
Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two
network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space
Correct Answe

QUESTION 25
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 26
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
Correct Answer: C

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