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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-34)

QUESTION 1
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure?
A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table size
B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a
private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?
A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer
requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured.
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310 dumps
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip
171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip
171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority
95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2
preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1
preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority
95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 15
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to
interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate
switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22. Which two code fragments write ” rose ” to a log? (Choose two.)
A. rose
B. rose
C.
D.
Answer: AD

QUESTION 23. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the element, using the rate attribute
B. the element, using the rate attribute
C. the element, using the duration attribute
D. the element, using the duration attribute
200-310 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
A. NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B. NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C. The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D. With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is OpenID used for?
A. to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B. to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C. to pay on-line via your own bank account
D. to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites
200-310 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?
A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is an example of the use of location information?
A. to determine the user’s native language
B. to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C. to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D. to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
What is the generally accepted communication protocol on the Internet?
A. Net BIOS
B. OSI
C. SNA
D. TCP/IP
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is an economic cloud solution for a short term project like a one time application design?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Software as-a-Service
C. Communication-as-a-Service
D. Security-as-a-Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
What may be an economic benefit of Cloud computing?
A. a custom accounting system
B. acceptance by employees
C. purchasing thin clients
D. reduced overhead
200-310 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32 What does the integrity of information mean?
A. It means that the access to the information is limited.
B. It means that the information can be accessed by those users who are allowed to access it.
C. It means that the information is accurate.
D. It means that the information is protected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What is a main challenge for enterprises in using cell phones for collaboration?
A. Applications for collaboration are limited.
B. Collaborative applications are complicated.
C. Employees want to use their private cell phones.
D. Separating business data from personal data.
200-310 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
What is the principal function of the Hypervisor?
A. identity management
B. responding to client requests
C. scheduling the sharing of resources
D. virus protection
Correct Answer: C

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[2018-February New] Discount Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 Study Guide PDF Latest Version PDF&VCE Video Study 332Q Free Share (1-20)

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How can I study for the Cisco 100-105 dumps? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (100-105 ICND1) exam is a 90 Minutes (45-55 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification. Discount Cisco 100-105 dumps ICND1 study guide pdf latest version pdf&vce video study. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 100-105 exam. Pass4itsure continues to update the Cisco 100-105 ICND1 Exam questions in accordance with the real 100-105 1 exam, which is to ensure coverage of the issue, more than 95%. Pass4itsure inform customers about new products in time to help you pass your https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps exam easily.

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100-105 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With the configuration above, when we type andquot;do show vlanandquot; we would not see VLAN 10 in the VLAN database because it has not been created yet.

QUESTION 6
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr

QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle: Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct. AREA 2 o

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.

Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation/Reference:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers. In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands. IPv6 in I

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause ofthis problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2
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QUESTION 1
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
210-260 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which statement about college campus is true?
A. College campus has geographical position.
B. College campus Hasn`t got internet access.
C. College campus Has multiple subdomains.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two characteristics apply to an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) Choose two
A. Does not add delay to the original traffic.
B. Cabled directly inline with the flow of the network traffic.
C. Can drop traffic based on a set of rules.
D. Runs in promoscous mode.
E. Cannot drop the packet on its own
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which type of PVLAN port allows hosts in the same VLAN to communicate directly with each other?
A. community for hosts in the PVLAN
B. promiscuous for hosts in the PVLAN
C. isolated for hosts in the PVLAN
D. span for hosts in the PVLAN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An attacker installs a rogue switch that sends superior BPDUs on your network. What is a possible result of this activity?
A. The switch could offer fake DHCP addresses.
B. The switch could become the root bridge.
C. The switch could be allowed to join the VTP domain.
D. The switch could become a transparent bridge.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5
E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
210-260 vce Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
B. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
C. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
D. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What type of packet creates and performs network operations on a network device?
A. control plane packets
B. data plane packets
C. management plane packets
D. services plane packets
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
How does the Cisco ASA use Active Directory to authorize VPN users?
A. It queries the Active Directory server for a specific attribute for the specified user.
B. It sends the username and password to retrieve an ACCEPT or REJECT message from the Active Directory server.
C. It downloads and stores the Active Directory database to query for future authorization requests.
D. It redirects requests to the Active Directory server defined for the VPN group.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two functions can SIEM provide? (Choose Two)
A. Correlation between logs and events from multiple systems.
B. event aggregation that allows for reduced log storage requirements.
C. proactive malware analysis to block malicious traffic.
D. dual-factor authentication.
E. centralized firewall management.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two uses of SIEM software? (Choose two.)
A. collecting and archiving syslog data
B. alerting administrators to security events in real time
C. performing automatic network audits
D. configuring firewall and IDS devices
E. scanning email for suspicious attachments
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure data?
A. a public/private key pair
B. shared secret keys
C. an RSA nonce
D. an MD5 hash
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?
A. IPS
B. fail-close
C. IDS
D. fail-open
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the effect of the ASA command crypto isakmp nat-traversal?
A. It opens port 4500 only on the outside interface.
B. It opens port 500 only on the inside interface.
C. It opens port 500 only on the outside interface.
D. It opens port 4500 on all interfaces that are IPSec enabled.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is true about the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?
A. The feature can be disabled through a remote session
B. There is additional space required to secure the primary Cisco IOS Image file
C. The feature automatically detects image and configuration version mismatch
D. Remote storage is used for securing files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which prevent the company data from modification even when the data is in transit?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Vailability
210-260 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which IPS detection method can you use to detect attacks that based on the attackers IP addresses?
A. Policy-based
B. Anomaly-based
C. Reputation-based
D. Signature-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 20
Which filter uses in Web reputation to prevent from Web Based Attacks? (Choose two)
A. outbreak filter
B. buffer overflow filter
C. bayesian overflow filter
D. web reputation
E. exploit filtering
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
How does a zone-based firewall implementation handle traffic between interfaces in the same zone?
A. Traffic between two interfaces in the same zone is allowed by default.
B. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you configure the same- security permit command.
C. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is always blocked.
D. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you apply a service policy to the zone pair.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
What is a potential drawback to leaving VLAN 1 as the native VLAN?
A. It may be susceptible to a VLAN hoping attack.
B. Gratuitous ARPs might be able to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.
C. The CAM might be overloaded, effectively turning the switch into a hub.
D. VLAN 1 might be vulnerable to IP address spoofing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is the actual IOS privilege level of User Exec mode?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 5
D. 15
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which three statements about Cisco host-based IPS solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
# nat (inside,outside) dynamic interface Refer to the above. Which translation technique does this configuration result in?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Dynamic PAT
D. Twice NAT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a switch is true?
A. The isolated port can communicate only with the promiscuous port.
B. The isolated port can communicate with other isolated ports and the promiscuous port.
C. The isolated port can communicate only with community ports.
D. The isolated port can communicate only with other isolated ports.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?
A. a symmetric algorithm
B. an asymmetric algorithm
C. a Public Key Infrastructure algorithm
D. an IP security algorithm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Where OAKLEY and SKEME come to play?
A. IKE
B. ISAKMP
C. DES
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
In which configuration mode do you configure the ip ospf authentication-key 1 command?
A. Interface
B. routing process
C. global
D. privileged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which of the following commands result in a secure bootset? (Choose all that apply.)
A. secure boot-set
B. secure boot-config
C. secure boot-files
D. secure boot-image
210-260 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
In a security context, which action can you take to address compliance?
A. Implement rules to prevent a vulnerability.
B. Correct or counteract a vulnerability.
C. Reduce the severity of a vulnerability.
D. Follow directions from the security appliance manufacturer to remediate a vulnerability.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which type of layer 2 attack enables the attacker to intercept traffic that is intended for one specific recipient?
A. BPDU attack
B. DHCP Starvation
C. CAM table overflow
D. MAC address spoofing
210-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which command verifies phase 1 of an IPsec VPN on a Cisco router?
A. show crypto map
B. show crypto ipsec sa
C. show crypto isakmp sa
D. show crypto engine connection active
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?
A. Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.
B. A Web site security framework.
C. A security discussion forum for Web site developers.
D. Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
What can cause the the state table of a stateful firewall to update? (choose two)
A. when a connection is created
B. when a connection\’s timer has expired within state table
C. when packet is evaluated against the outbound access list and is denied
D. when outbound packets forwarded to outbound interface
E. when rate-limiting is applied
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?
A. A value that indicates the potential severity of an attack.
B. A value that the administrator assigns to each signature.
C. A value that sets the priority of a signature.
D. A value that measures the application awareness.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally
visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router\’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router\’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall\’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
If a router configuration includes the line aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ enable, which events will occur
when the TACACS+ server returns an error? (Choose two.)
A. The user will be prompted to authenticate using the enable password
B. Authentication attempts to the router will be denied
C. Authentication will use the router`s local database
D. Authentication attempts will be sent to the TACACS+ server
210-260 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 40
What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?
A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.
B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.
C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.
D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.
E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 6
What relationship is represented in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. manifestation of an artifact
B. node with deployed artifacts
C. node deployed on an artifact
D. node with annotated property values
E. node with deployment specifications
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What determines how many values will move across an object flow edge at one time?
A. effect
B. ordering
C. upper bound
D. selection
E. weight
F. transformation
Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What can be used when the source of an object flow has values of type Customer, and the target needs the name of the customer?
A. upper bound
B. selection
C. effect
D. ordering
E. weight
F. transformation
Answer: F

QUESTION 9
What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no exception parameters declared?
A. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
B. appended to an exception log
C. handled by a default handler
D. sent to the “ExceptionManager” object
E. ignored
70-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. p is a behavior port.
B. p is a hidden port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
B. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
C. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
70-410 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a procedural language.
B. OCL is a query language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a programming language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 13
What is true about a parameterized package? (Choose two)
A. a package where all classes in the package are parameterized
B. a package with different variants, where the parameters tell how the package may vary
C. names of classes within a parameterized package can be parameters of the package
D. a package from which new packages can be defined by binding parameters
E. a package that is instantiable, and where the actual parameters are provided when creating package instances
F. a package with parameters that are names of other imported packages and a binding tells which actual packages are imported
70-410 vce Answer: C,D

QUESTION 14
What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. can represent all system structures
B. is a kind of package
C. can represent only software systems
D. cannot contain another model
E. is a kind of component
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 15
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. failure mode use cases
E. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
Answer: C,D

QUESTION 16
What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
B. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
C. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
D. send a request to a port
Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is NOT true of a transition in a protocol state machine?
A. may have no associated operation
B. may have a precondition
C. may have multiple associated operation
D. may have a postcondition
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component’s namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. contents of the component’s namespace are promoted to its superclass
C. objects continue to exist
D. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
Answer: A

QUESTION 19
If an activity is executed three times in parallel, how many executions exist? (Choose two)
A. two
B. three
C. one
D. none
E. any number
70-410 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION 20
What is true of a protocol state machine?
A. may have a behavioral feature context
B. must be associated with exactly one classifier
C. may be associated with any number of classifiers
D. cannot be associated with a classifier
Answer: B

QUESTION 21
By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose three)
A. import
B. dependency
C. power types
D. inheritance
E. ownership
F. association end subsets
70-410 vce Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 22
What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
D. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
E. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
70-410 exam Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which classifiers may NOT realize an InformationItem?
A. Component
B. Interface
C. ObjectNode
D. Class
E. Signal
F. InformationItem
Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The preconditions of behavioral features of an interface can be specified in what way?
A. the set of its features
B. the actions of its protocol state machine
C. the parameters of its protocol state machine
D. comments attached to the corresponding features
E. one or more guard conditions of a protocol state machine
Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Duplicates are NOT allowed in which OCL types?
A. Collection
B. Bag
C. Set
D. Sequence
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What does a local precondition mean?
A. An activity begins executing when the precondition becomes true. B.
An action begins executing when the precondition becomes true.
C. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an activity begins executing.
D. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an action begins executing.
E. An activity may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
F. An action may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
Answer: D

QUESTION 27
If a data store node has three values and one moves across an outgoing edge, how many are left?
A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
C. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
D. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
E. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
Answer: A

QUESTION 29
To which layers in the 4-layer metamodel hierarchy for the UML metamodel (as depicted in the exhibit) do M1 and M2 correspond?
Exhibit:
A. M2 = user model; M1 = UML metamodel
B. M2 = user model; M1 = runtime instances
C. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = user model
D. M2 = MOF meta-metamodel; M1 = UML metamodel
E. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = MOF meta-metamodel
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. connector
B. transition
C. association
D. dependency
70-410 exam Answer: D

QUESTION 31
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?
A. association
B. dependency
C. connector
D. transition
Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a typed language.
B. OCL is a programming language.
C. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
D. OCL is a query language.
E. OCL is a procedural language.
F. OCL is a specification language.
Answer: A,D,F

QUESTION 33
What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
D. a particular aspect of a collaboration
70-410 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
B. failure mode use cases
C. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component repository
Answer: A,B

QUESTION 35
In the exhibit, at which levels are the DeploymentSpecifications?
Exhibit:
A. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = instance level
B. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = spec level
C. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = spec level
D. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = instance level
70-410 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 36
If an action has a behavior with three sets of parameters, how many of the sets can provide output for a single execution of the behavior?
A. any number
B. two
C. one
D. three
Answer: C

QUESTION 37
The exhibit depicts the UML superstructure packages for behavioral models. What is the correct identity for packages Foo and Bar?
Exhibit:
A. Foo = Activities; Bar = Collaborations
B. Foo = CommonBehaviors; Bar = Activities
C. Foo = CoreBehavior; Bar = Communications
D. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Sequences
E. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Activities
70-410 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 38
What boundary do lightning bolt arrows cross to have an effect?
A. structured node
B. interruptible region
C. activity
D. exception region
E. expansion region
70-410 exam Answer: B

QUESTION 39
In the exhibit, what is the minimum number of incoming arrows that must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
Exhibit:
A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: C,E

QUESTION 41
An information flow may NOT occur between which elements?
A. classes
B. instance specifications
C. use cases
D. packages
E. associations
70-410 dumps Answer: E

QUESTION 42
Which stereotype is NOT expected to see decorating an ExecutionEnvironment instance?
A. <<database subsystem>>
B. <<stream file>>
C. <<workflow engine>>
D. <<CRM System>>
E. <<OS>>
Answer: B

QUESTION 43
What is an abstract type in OCL?
A. Bag
B. Sequence
C. Integer
D. Set
E. Collection
70-410 pdf Answer: E

QUESTION 44
Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<source>>
C. <<executable>>
D. <<script>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

QUESTION 45
What characteristic of an object node can prevent it from receiving a value?
A. selection
B. effect
C. ordering
D. upper bound
E. transformation
F. weight
70-410 vce Answer: D

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 5
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: DE
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A situation can occur where the interface MTU is at a high value, for example 9000, while the real value of the size of packets that can be forwarded over this interface is 1500.

QUESTION 8
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routi

QUESTION 9
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing

QUESTION 13
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After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the

QUESTION 14
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID. The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the rout

QUESTION 15
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: BG
Explanation/Reference:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing

QUESTION 16
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation/Reference:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -andgt; A and E are correct. The command andquot;show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about V
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Q&As(24-52)

Question No : 24 A Service Provider wants to extend MPLS WAN endpoints in the cloud at the edge of a customer network within the cloud. Which platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco NX-OS
B. Cisco CSR1000v
C. Cisco ISR Routers running IOS
D. Cisco CRS-1
E. Cisco ASR Routers running IOS-XR
400-201 exam Answer: B
Due to recent acquisitions, a company’s MPLS infrastructure is growing very quickly. Concerns arise about labeling each and every IP address on the service provider core network. The IP address space is designed as per following: Service provide ip address range is: 10.0.0.0/16• All loopback addresses use subnet mask /32 10.0.0.0/24 range is used for loopback addresses All other subnet masks used for links are /24 and /25

Question No : 25 Which command would significantly reduce the label allocations without compromising LDP functionalities?
A. ip prefix-list Llst1 deny 10.0.0./16 le 20 ge 25
!
mpls Idp label
allocate global prefix-list List1
B. access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 mpls Idp neighbor 10.0.0.1 labels accept 3
C. mpls Idp labelallocate global host-routes
D. mpls Idp password required for 10
!
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.1access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.2
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.3
Answer: C

Question No : 26 A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPs for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3108, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP4
400-201 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 27 In a virtualization concept, which is one of the characteristic of the HVR solution?
A. introduces significant contention of resources
B. implements shared control plane resources
C. implements dedicated chassis resources
D. implements dedicated data plane resources
Answer: D

Question No : 28 In MPLS-enabled network, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to traditional VPLS?
A. Use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
B. Per flow load balancing
C. Optimized learning and flooding process
D. Leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. No need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
F. Use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
400-201 pdf Answer: B,C

Question No : 29 The Internal Rate of Return is:
A.The Discount Rate which produces the highest NPV
B.The Discount Rate which produces the lowest NPV
C.The Discount Rate which matches the normal bank interest rate
D.The Discount Rate which produces a zero NPV
Answer:D

Question No : 30 What is product based planning?
A.A technique that marketing departments use to launch new products and services.
B.A technique that seeks to identify tasks and activities
C.A technique that monitors the progress of the project
D.A technique that concentrates on the identification and definition of what the project is to deliver
400-201 vce Answer:D

Question No : 31 Complete the following statement choosing the most appropriate option from those below. “The design authority is responsible for?”
A.Co-ordinating the overall programme and constituent projects
B.The programme
C.Business integrity within the programme
D.Technical integrity across projects
Answer:D

Question No : 32 End Project Reviews should be used to:
A.Identify who was responsible for any failures
B.Consider support requirements
C.Capture lessons learned for future projects of a similar nature
D.Agree when the project team can be released for other work
400-201 exam Answer:C

Question No : 33 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a Project Initiation Document / Terms of Reference?
A.Detailed Analysis
B.Timescales
C.Risks
D.Objectives
Answer:A

Question No : 34 Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing?
A. In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
B. The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
C. The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
D. The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
Answer: C

Question No : 35 The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits
A. The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044
B. The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.
C. The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.
D. The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.
Answer: D

Question No : 36
Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project?
A. Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis
B. Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code
C. Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder
D. Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort
400-201 pdf Answer: A
The cancellation of a current major development project has released resources. The development manager has decided to respond to his own request to tender and has proposed an in-house development with the use of a Rapid Application Development (RAO) approach.

Question No : 37
Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits
A. It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.
B. It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.
C. Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.
D. More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.
Answer: B

Question No : 38 Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach?
A. Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing
B. Project management and control
C. No complete requirements specification
D. Time-boxing
400-201 vce Answer: B

Question No : 39
As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use?
A. Decision Table Testing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Error Guessing
D. Exploratory Testing
Answer: D

Question No : 40
The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits
A. Percentage of business requirements exercised
B. Percentage of planned hours worked this week
C. Percentage of countries that have test scenarios
D. Percentage of test iterations completed
400-201 exam Answer: A
The following is the current incident handling process in used at the company.
Step 1: Incident is documented in the incident Tile with the following information:
– Software module or area where the fault occurred
– Who has reported the fault
– Hardware configuration used for the test that found the fault
– The sequential incident number (1 greater than the last one recorded)
Step 2: Developer assigned to fix the fault
Step 3: Developer fixes the fault
Step 4: Developer signs off the incident as closed, and it is then removed from the incident file

Question No : 41
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits
A. No priority or severity assigned
B. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
C. No mentioning of reproduceability
D. No classification on type of incident
Answer: A
You are a test manager in charge of integration, system and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing ATM to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances from €20 to €500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, VISA, Eurocard and Mastercard. In the master test plan the following items are listed in the section named “items and/or features to be tested”:
I All supported credit cards
II Language localization
II Valid and invalid advances
IV Usability
V Response time

Question No : 42
Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits
A. All supported credit cards
B. Language localization
C. Valid and invalid advances
D. Usability
E. Response time
Answer: A, C

Question No : 43 Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits
A. An approach to regression testing
B. A list of boundary values for “advance amount”
C. A description of dependencies between test cases
D. A logical collection of test cases
Answer: A

Question No : 44
Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run?
A. 700
B. 720
C. 784
D. 570
400-201 pdf Answer: B

Question No : 45 Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing – showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase?
A. Acceptance testing to verify the business process
B. Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
C. Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
D. Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution
Answer: D

Question No : 46 Which of the following bar code types is readable by a 1D scanner?
A. Maxicode
B. Data matrix
C. QR Code
D. Interleaved 2 of 5
400-201 vce Answer: D

Question No : 47
Which of the following bar codes is NOT considered two dimensional bar code?
A. Code 39
B. PDF 417
C. QR Code
D. Data matrix
Answer: A

Question No : 48
Which of the following communication interfaces CANNOT be used by an application to senddata/scanner commands bi-directionally?
A. USB SNAPI
B. RS-232SSI
C. USB
D. OPOS
E. Keyboard Wedge
400-201 exam Answer: E

Question No : 49 The ability of a scanner to decode a barcode even when there is relative motion between the barcode and the scanner is called:
A. Ambient light immunity
B. Aiming pattern
C. Omni-directionality
D. Motion Tolerance
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 50
You have a Request for Proposal for a customer that will be receiving cars in a car rental location, customer wants to read the car’s VIN barcode, take an image of the license plate and record customer specific information. The customer is price sensitive and they don’t want to buy a mobile computer. Which of the following items would you recommend for this customer?
A. LS300S
B. LS920Si
C. MK500 touch screen
D. MT2090 with 2D imager
400-201 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 51
Your customer wishes to decode the three types of bar codes from the image below.
Bar codes of this type are typically used on which of the following items?
A. Produce
B. Postal Items
C. Clothes and other Retail items
D. Overnight package tracking
E. Vehicles for toll collection
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52
You have a government customer that just opened a bid in Latin America for a company with 1,000 convenience stores located in small cities across Mexico and EI Salvador. The customer requires the support of both 1 and 2D scanning with the same device and a minimum of 2 per store. The customer is price sensitive. Which of the following scanner combinations would you recommend?
A. LS1203 – Corded
B. LS2208 – Corded
C. LS4208 – Corded
D. LS4278 – Cordless
E. DS4208 – Corded
F. DS6707-SR – Corded
G. DS6878-SR-Cordless
H. DS9808-SR – Corded
400-201 pdf Answer: E

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QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk
B. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
C. Server Manager
D. Computer Management
70-410 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. Subsequent to deploying a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, you are instructed to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to the server. You want to achieve this goal from the command prompt. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of the dism.exe command.
B. You should consider making use of the dsquery.exe command.
C. You should consider making use of the dsadd.exe command.
D. You should consider making use of the dsrm.exe command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Hyper-V hosts contains several virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Network Load Balancing feature on the virtual machines. You need to configure the virtual machines to support Network Load Balancing (NLB). Which virtual machine settings should you configure?
A. Port mirroring
B. DHCP guard
C. Router guard
D. MAC address
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. The forest contains five domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to configure DC5 as a global catalog server. Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You have received instructions to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on a server, named L2P-SR07. You want to achieve this remotely from a server, named L2P-SR06. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR07.
B. You should consider accessing the Server Manager console on L2P-SR06.
C. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR07.
D. You should consider accessing the TS Manager console on L2P-SR06.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to create 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
B. New-StoragePool
C. Diskpart
D. Share and Storage Management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a new inbound rule by using Windows Firewall with Advanced Security. You need to configure the rule to allow Server1 to accept unsolicited inbound packets that are received through a network address translation (NAT) device on the network. Which setting in the rule should you configure?
A. Edge traversal
B. Authorized computers
C. Interface types
D. Remote IP address
70-410 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are in the process of installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 on a new L2P.com server, named L2P-SR13. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to a installing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Server Graphical Shell is installed, but not enabled.
B. Server roles can be configured locally via the command prompt using Windows PowerShell.
C. Server roles can be configured locally via Server Manager.
D. You are able to access the Microsoft Management Console locally.
E. The Desktop Experience is not available.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 25
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Correct Answer: C
70-410 exam QUESTION 26
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
70-410 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
70-410 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
70-410 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
70-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
70-410 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
70-410 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
70-410 vce Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 67
Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?
A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree
D. storm control
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Voice VLAN Configuration Guidelines You should configure voice VLAN on switch access ports. The voice VLAN should be present and active on the switch for the IP phone to correctly communicate on the voice VLAN. Use the show vlan privileged EXEC command to see if the VLAN is present (listed in the display). The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice VLAN is configured. When you disable voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically disabled.
QUESTION 68
In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?
A. within the Ethernet header
B. within the Ethernet payload
C. within the Ethernet FCS
D. within the Ethernet source MAC address
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Frame format
300-115 dumps

Insertion of 802.1Q tag in an Ethernet frame 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame. Instead, for Ethernet frames, it adds a 32-bit field between the source MAC address and the EtherType/length fields of the original frame Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch?
A. VLANs 1-1001
B. VLANs 1-4094
C. VLANs 2-1001
D. VLANs 2-4094
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning should only be enabled on VTP servers, all the clients in the VTP domain will automatically enable VTP pruning. By default, VLANs 2 1001 are pruning eligible, but VLAN 1 can’t be pruned because it’s an administrative VLAN. Both VTP versions 1 and 2 supports pruning.
QUESTION 70
Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?
A. VTP pruning
B. port-security
C. storm control
D. bpdguard
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic.
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

The users in an engineering department that connect to the same access switch cannot access the network. The network engineer found that the engineering VLAN is missing from the database. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Disable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
B. Update the VTP revision number.
C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.
D. Enable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only VTP servers can add new VLANs to the switched network, so to enable vlan 10 on this switch you will first need to change the VTP mode from client to server. Then, you will need to enable 802.1Q trunking to pass this new VLAN along to the other switches.
QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

The network switches for two companies have been connected and manually configured for the required VLANs, but users in company A are not able to access network resources in company B when DTP is enabled. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Delete vlan.dat and ensure that the switch with lowest MAC address is the VTP server.
B. Disable DTP and document the VTP domain mismatch.
C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.
D. Enable the company B switch with the vtp mode server command.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since the number of existing VLANs differ on the switches (9 on A and 42 on B) we know that there is a problem with VTP or the trunking interfaces. The VTP domain names do match and they are both VTP servers so there are no issues there. The only viable solution is that there is a DTP issues and so you must instead manually configure the trunk ports between these two switches so that the VLAN information can be sent to each switch.
QUESTION 73
In MPLS, how is the label range 0 ?15 used?
A. Static LSPs
B. Reserved use
C. Vendor proprietary use
D. Management LSPs
E. Dynamic LSPs
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which of the following are characteristics of ECMP LSPs in LDP? Choose three answers
A. Liberal label retention mode
B. T-LDP enabled with peers to which load balancing is desired.
C. ECMP enabled in the config>router context.
D. Hashing used to select the egress label.
E. Export policy applied to advertise multiple labels for a given FEC.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 75
LDP is enabled on both ends of a point-to-point link, but the “show router Idp status” command indicates that LDP is operationally down. The Oper Down Reason field shows the message “systemIpDown.” What might cause this condition?
A. The LSP is in the administrative down state.
B. The router’s router ID overlaps another.
C. The router’s interfaces do not have LDP running.
D. The router’s system interface requires an IP address
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Click on the exhibit button.
The policy on router R2 is applied as an LDP export policy. What FECs now appear in router R2’s LIB?
A. Local FECs, not including those in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space.
B. Only system ID FECs may appear in the LIB.
C. Any local FECs, except those with a 24 bit mask.
D. Local FECs in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space
Correct Answer: A

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[2017-December New] The Most Effective Microsoft PRO 070-685 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Pro: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Support Technician

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QUESTION 1
The chief financial officer (CFO) releases new guidelines that specify that only users from finance are allowed to run FinanceApp1.
Users in the Marketing OU report that they can run FinanceApp1. You need to ensure that only users in the Finance OU can run FinanceApp1. What should you do?
A. In the AllComputers GPO, create a new AppLocker executable rule.
B. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a new Windows Installer rule.
C. In the AllComputers GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new hash rule.
D. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new path rule.
070-685 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Chapter 10 p 467- 468
Understanding the difference between SRP and AppLocker You might want to deploy application control policies onto Windows operating systems earlier than Windows Server2008R2 or Windows7. You can use AppLocker policies only on the supported editions of Windows Server2008R2 and Windows7, but you can use SRP on supported editions of Windows beginning with Windows Server2003 and WindowsXP.
QUESTION 2
Users in the ERPApp1 pilot project report intermittent application issues. You need to consolidate all application events for the users in a central location. What should you do?
A. Configure event subscriptions.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
070-685 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A. Configure event subscriptions. Event Viewer enables you to view events on a single remote computer. However, troubleshooting an issue might require you to examine a set of events stored in multiple logs on multiple computers. Windows 7 includes the ability to collect copies of events from multiple remote computers and store them locally. To specify which events to collect, you create an
event subscription. Among other details, the subscription specifies exactly which events will be collected and in which log they will be stored locally. Once a subscription is active and events are being collected, you can view and manipulate these forwarded events as you would any other locally stored events.
B. Configure the Advanced Audit Policy Configuration settings.
C. Create a custom view in Event Viewer.
You can create a filter that includes events from multiple event logs that satisfy specified criteria. You can then name and save that filter as a custom view. To apply the filter associated with a saved custom view, you navigate to the custom view in the console tree and click its name.
D. Create a user-defined Data Collector Set.
You can create a custom Data Collector Set containing performance counters and configure alert activities based on the performance counters exceeding or dropping below limits you define. After creating the Data Collector Set, you must configure the actions the system will take when the alert criteria are met. Membership in the local Performance Log Users or Administrators group, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete these procedures.
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QUESTION 3
The help desk reports that users in the Marketing OU print draft documents, e-mails, and other miscellaneous documents on Printer2. You need to recommend a solution so that marketing users print documents to Printer1 by default. What should you do?
A. Enable printer pooling.
B. Configure Group Policy Preferences.
C. Modify the priorities of the shared printers.
D. Modify the permissions of the shared printers.
070-685 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Action: This type of preference item provides a choice of four actions: Create, Replace, Update, and Delete. The behavior of the preference item varies with the action selected and whether the printer connection already exists. Set this printer as the default printer – Select this check box to make the shared printer connection the default Windows printer for the current user. Only if a local printer is not present – Select this check box to bypass changing the default printer if there is a local printer configured on the computer. This setting is unavailable until you select the Set this printer as the default printer check box. Note: A local printer is any printer that is not connected to a shared network printer. This includes physical printers connected to parallel, serial, and USB ports, TCP/IP printers, and virtual printers installed through software. To create a new Shared Printer preference item Open the Group Policy Management Console. Right-click the Group Policy object (GPO) that should contain the new preference item, and then click Edit. In the console tree under User Configuration, expand the Preferences folder, and then expand the Control Panel Settings folder.
Right-click the Printers node, point to New, and select Shared Printer. In the New Shared Printer Properties dialog box, select an Action for Group Policy to perform. Enter shared printer settings for Group Policy to configure or remove. Click the Common tab, configure any options, and then type your comments in the Description box. Click OK. The new preference item appears in the details pane.
QUESTION 4
The Office1 network link is brought offline for emergency maintenance. Users in Office2 and Office3 report that they cannot connect to the wireless network. You need to recommend changes to ensure that users in all offices can connect to the wireless network if a WAN link fails. What should you recommend?
A. that redundant DHCP scopes be created
B. that additional RADIUS servers be deployed
C. that universal group caching be implemented
D. that additional default gateways be configured
070-685 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION NO: 37
A switching fabric switch port is connected to a fiber optic hub port, then see from this port fiber switch type yes.
A. G-Port
B. E-Port
C. F-Port
D. FL-Port
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
S2600 series storage arrays do not support port type ()
A. SAS host ports
B. SAS expander port
C. FC host ports
D. FC cascade port
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Import and export configuration information via the ISM, which operate under the entry of the navigation tree
A. Configuration Assistant
B. System Configuration
C. Device Information
D. Mapping
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
When installed on Windows 2003 UltraPath for Windows, in Device Manager:
A. Successful installation displays “UltraPath Device Specific Module”
B. If the installation is successful, displays “Multi-Path Support”
C. Successful installation displays “Multi-Path Device Specific Module”
D. If the installation is successful, displays “UltraPath Support”
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 41
FC protocol, FC-2 layer defines: (Choose two)
A. Coding Standards
B. Decoding standard
C. Flow Control
D. Frame Agreement
210-260 pdf Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 42
Hard disk capacity is what factors determine the size of? (Choose three)
A. Number of heads
B. Sectors
C. Number of tracks
D. Number of cylinders
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 43
All of the following are the reporting standards in government auditing EXCEPT:
A. The auditor should plan the audit in a manner which ensures that an audit of high quality is carried out in an economic, efficient, and effective way and in a timely manner.
B. It is for the SAI to which they belong to decide finally on the action to be taken in relation to fraudulent practices or serious irregularities discovered by the auditors.
C. At the end of each audit the auditor should prepare a written opinion or report, as appropriate, setting out the findings in an appropriate form; its content should be easy to understand and be independent, objective, fair, and constructive.
D. The work of the audit staff at each level and audit phase should be properly supervised during the audit; and documented work should be reviewed by a senior member of the audit staff.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 44
With regard to __________, the auditor should prepare a written report, which may either be a part of the report on the ____________ or a separate report on the tests of compliance with applicable laws and regulations. The report should contain a statement of positive assurance on those items tested for compliance and negative assurance on those items not tested:
A. Income statements, financial audits
B. Financial statements, regularity audits
C. Regularity audits, financial statements
D. operational audits, financial statements
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
The _______________ mission is to serve the public interest, strengthen the global accountancy profession, and contribute to the development of strong international economies by establishing and promoting adherence to high-quality professional standards, furthering the international convergence of such standards, and speaking out on public interest issues where the profession’s
expertise is most relevant:
A. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
B. The International Federation of Accountants (IFAC)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
D. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
Which committee of IFAC issues pronouncements aimed at developing and harmonizing public sector financial reporting, accounting, and auditing practices while “Public sector” refers to national governments, regional (state, provincial, territorial) governments, local (city, town) governments, and related governmental entities (agencies, boards, commissions, and enterprises)?
A. Advisory committee
B. Ethic’s committee
C. Public Sector Committee (PSC)
D. general rules and regulation committee
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
The auditors of public sector entities may be required to report on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. reporting to the owners
B. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities;
C. Adequacy of accounting and internal control systems;
D. Economy, efficiency, and effectiveness of programs, projects, and activities.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
All of the following are the objectives of an audit EXCEPT:
A. Compliance with legislative or regulatory requirements and related authorities.
B. the auditor’s opinion enhances the credibility of the financial statements, the user Cannot assume that the opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the entity nor the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the entity.
C. The phrases used to express the auditor’s opinion are “give a true and fair view” or “present fairly, in all material respects,” which are equivalent terms.
D. The objective of an audit of financial statements is to enable the auditor to express an opinion whether the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with and identified financial reporting framework.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 49
The auditor should comply with the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants issued by the International Federation of Accountants. All of the following are the ethical principles governing the auditor’s professional responsibilities EXCEPT:
A. Independence and integrity.
B. Professional competence and due care and confidentiality.
C. Professional behavior and Technical standards.
D. No confidentiality;
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
The term _________ refers to the audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances to achieve the objective of the audit. The procedures required to conduct an audit in accordance with _________ should be determined by the auditor having regard to the requirements of ISAs, relevant professional bodies, legislation, and regulations:
A. Scope of an audit, ISAs
B. Purpose of an audit, ISAs
C. Principle of an audit, ISAs
D. Purpose of an audit, PSPs
Answer: A

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