[2021.7] Update Share It With Your: CompTIA A+ 220-1002 Exam Dumps [Q&A]

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Update CompTIA 220-1002 exam questions answers

QUESTION 1
A technician is installing a new system in a facility that requires zero downtime. The facility uses a backup generator in
case of power loss. Into which of the following power sources should the technician plug the system to offer optimal
uptime?
A. Only a surge protector is needed due to the backup generator
B. Plug directly into the emergency power source
C. Plug a surge protector directly into the UPS
D. Connect to a UPS that utilizes the emergency power source
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
A user calls the corporate helpdesk stating that their battery is not charging. The operating system shows that there is a
problem with the battery. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to determine what the issue is without
erasing the user\\’s unsaved data?
A. Using a known-good computer of the same type, switch batteries between the two laptops.
B. Remove the A/C adapter while the system is running and observe if the screen dims.
C. Completely shut down the laptop, remove the A/C power source and restart the laptop.
D. Using a known-good computer of the same type, switch A/C adapters between the two laptops.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Joe. a user, is gelling replies to an email message he never sent Joe contacts the help desk to ask what he should do.
Which of the following should the help desk technician recommend FIRST to Joe?
A. Delete the replies
B. Change his password
C. Notify his contacts that his account was compromised
D. Forward the email to the technician.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following employs content filtering to prevent data leaks within an organization?
A. DLP
B. IPS
C. ACL
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A

……

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Let Us Learn About CompTIA A+ 220-1002, You Will Find The 220-1002 Q&A

QUESTION 1
A technician is cleaning up a warehouse and several old CRT monitors and UPS units. The technician removes the
batteries from the UPSs and wants to comply with proper disposal techniques.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to proceed with disposal of the batteries?
A. Place security In trash receptacles
B. Refer to the manufacture\\’s specific usage
C. Review the material safety data sheet
D. Conduct an Internal search of disposal techniques
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A company executive reports receiving numerous bounce-back messages to an inbox. When a technician investigates,
it appears the executive did not send any of the messages that triggered the bounce-back replies. Which of the following
is MOST likely to have occurred\\’
A. Social engineering
B. Man-in-the-mid die attack
C. Spear pNshing
D. Email hijacking
E. Logic bomb
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company wishes to secure entry and provide a reviewwable entry log to specific offices within its building. Which of
the following would be the lowest-cost solution to BEST meet the company\\’s needs?
A. Key fob
B. Biometric locks
C. Entry control roster
D. Cipher locks
Correct Answer: B
New Question, pending the Answer.

QUESTION 4
The support center for a PC manufacturer believes that the hard drive may be having an issue. The support
representative asks the technician to find out how many pages per second and what the queue length is for the hard
drive. In which of the following utilities should the technician look FIRST for this information?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Component Services
C. Device Manager
D. Drive Management
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A technician has installed a second monitor for a customer, but the desktop font sizes do not match. Which of the
following display settings should be technician adjust to correct this issue?
A. Resolution
B. Refresh rate
C. Extended monitor
D. Color depth
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
A Windows 7 machine appears to have a failure. Every time it is rebooted, the message “BOOTMGR is missing”
appears. You have previously inserted a Windows 7 installation DVD into the DVD-ROM. Please repair this failure
without overwriting the customers\\’ local user profiles.
Instructions:
1.
Launch the simulation to repair the failure
2.
Type Help in command line to show list of available commands
3.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button.

220-1002 exam questions-q6

A. Review the for all details.
Correct Answer: A
1.
Boot using Windows 7 DVD:
2.
Select “Repair your computer”
3.
Select recovery tools
4.
Chose command prompt
5.
Use the command bootrec/fixboot

220-1002 exam questions-q6-2

220-1002 exam questions-q6-3

220-1002 exam questions-q6-4

QUESTION 7
An employee recently departed under bad terms, and the client is concerned for their SOHO network security. Which of
the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Physically secure the access point
B. Change default password
C. Lower the transmission power
D. Assign static IP addresses
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
SIMULATION
A Windows 7 machine appears to have a failure. Every time it is rebooted, the message “BOOTMGR is missing”
appears.
You have previously inserted a Windows 7 installation DVD into the DVD-ROM.
Please repair this failure without overwriting the customers’ local user profiles.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the Windows recovery and repair utilities to remediate the issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

220-1002 exam questions-q8

220-1002 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer: Please see explanation.
Step 1: Choose Boot from Windows 7 DVD Step 2: Click Install Step 3: Choose Upgrade

QUESTION 9
Which of the following can be used to help recover a lost smartphone?
A. Remote support software
B. Locator application
C. NFC enabled device
D. GPS navigation software
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
A technician received 300 old desktops following a recent computer upgrade. After taking inventory of the old machines,
the technician must destroy the data on the HDDs. Which of the following would be the MOST effective method to
accomplish this task?
A. Drill
B. Hammer
C. Low-level format
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following can be applied directly to an organizational unit in Active Directory to provide security to both the
user and the machine?
A. Folder Redirection
B. Group Policy
C. Security Groups
D. Home Folder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A technician accessed a network share from a computer joined to workgroup. The technician logged in as “user1” and
directed the computer to save the username and password. Several weeks later, the technician wants to log in to this
network share using the administrator account. The computer does not prompt for a username and password, but it
automatically logs in to the network share under the “user1” account.
Which of the following would allow the technician to log in using the “administrator” username?
A. Use the command: net use Z: \\fileserver\share
B. Go to the Sync Center and disable the offline files feature.
C. Delete the “user” account for the network share in Credential Manager.
D. Join the computer and file server to a domain and delegate administrator rights to “user1”.
E. Use the Advanced Sharing options in the Network and Sharing Center and enable “turn on network discovery”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is installing Windows 7 on a PC with a RAID card. The user has verified all of the cables are connected correctly,
but the installation media does not detect any hard drives. Which of the following should the user do to help detect the
hard drives?
A. Press F8 when prompted
B. Hit the refresh button to force a re-detect
C. Enable PATA in the BIOS
D. Select load driver
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.togaware.com/linux/survivor/Load_RAID.html

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More Information About CompTIA A+ 220-1002:

  • Support operating systems.
  • Install, configure, and maintain operating systems.
  • Maintain and troubleshoot Microsoft Windows.
  • Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
  • Manage users, workstations, and shared resources.
  • Implement physical security.
  • Secure workstations and data.
  • Troubleshoot workstation security issues.
  • Support and troubleshoot mobile operating systems and applications.
  • Implement operational procedures.

Official CompTIA: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-2-220-1002-study-guide

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Role-based
Exam Code: MD-100
Exam Name: Windows 10
Updated: Jan 25, 2021
Q&As: 211

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QUESTION 1
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
On Computer1, you turn on File History.
You need to protect a folder named D:\Folder1 by using File History.
What should you do?
A. From File Explorer, modify the Security settings of D:\Folder1
B. From File Explorer, add D:\Folder1 to the Documents library
C. From the Settings app, configure the Recovery settings
D. From File History in Control Panel, configure the Select drive settings
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 1,000 computers that run Windows 10.
You discover that when users are on their lock screen, they see a different background image every day, along with tips
for using different features in Windows 10.
You need to disable the tips and the daily background image for all the Windows 10 computers.
Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Turn off the Windows Welcome Experience
B. Turn off Windows Spotlight on Settings
C. Do not suggest third-party content in Windows spotlight
D. Turn off all Windows spotlight features
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/configuration/windows-spotlight

QUESTION 3
Your company purchases 20 laptops that use a new hardware platform.
In a test environment, you deploy Windows 10 to the new laptops.
Some laptops frequently generate stop errors.
You need to identify the cause of the issue.
What should you use?
A. Reliability Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. System Configuration
D. Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: A
References: https://lifehacker.com/how-to-troubleshoot-windows-10-with-reliability-monitor-1745624446

QUESTION 4
You have a workgroup computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the user accounts shown in
the following table.

md-100 exam questions-q4

User3, User4, and Administrator sign in and sign out on Computer1. User1 and User2 have never signed in to
Computer1.
You are troubleshooting policy issues on Computer1. You sign in to Computer1 as Administrator.
You add the Resultant Set of Policy (RsoP) snap-in to an MMC console.
Which users will be able to sign in on Computer1?
A. User1, User3, and User4 only
B. Administrator only
C. User1, User2, User3, User4, and Administrator
D. User3, User4, and Administrator only
Correct Answer: D
The Interactive logon: Number of previous logons to cache (in case domain controller is not available) policy setting
determines whether a user can log on to a Windows domain by using cached account information. Logon information for
domain accounts can be cached locally so that, if a domain controller cannot be contacted on subsequent logons, a
user can still log on. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/interactivelogon-number-of-previous-logons-to-cache-in-case-domain-controller-is-not-available 

QUESTION 5
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and is joined to an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com. A user named Admin1 signs in to Computer1 and runs the whoami command as shown in the following
exhibit.

md-100 exam questions-q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You manage devices that run Windows 10.
Ten sales users will travel to a location that has limited bandwidth that is expensive. The sales users will be at the
location for three weeks.
You need to prevent all Windows updates from downloading for the duration of the trip. The solution must not prevent
access to email and the Internet.
Solution: From Network and Internet in the Settings app, you set the network connections as metered connections.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.makeuseof.com/tag/5-ways-temporarily-turn-off-windows-update-windows-10/

QUESTION 7
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 contains a folder named Data on drive C.
The Advanced Security Settings for the Data folder are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

md-100 exam questions-q7

User1 is a member of the Users group.
Administrators are assigned Full control NTFS permissions to C:\Data.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q7-2

User1 cannot write files when connected to \\Computer1\Data because the Users group only has Read and Execute
NTFS permission to the C:\Data folder and there are no explicit NTFS permissions for User1.
User1 cannot write files locally because the Users group only has Read and Execute NTFS permission to the C:\Data
folder and there are no explicit NTFS permissions for User1.
Administrators cannot change the NTFS permissions of files and folders when connected to \\Computer1\Data because
they only have Change share permission. The would need Full Control share permission. They could do it locally
because they have Full Control NTFS permission.

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is in a workgroup.
Computer1 contains the local users shown in the following table.

md-100 exam questions-q8

 The Users group has Full control permissions to Folder1, Folder2, and Folder3.
User1 encrypts two files named File1.docx and File2.docx in Folder1 by using EFS.
Which users can move each file? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q8-2

Correct Answer:

md-100 exam questions-q8-3

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contain the users shown in the
following table.

md-100 exam questions-q9

 User1 joins Computer1 to Azure AD by using [email protected]
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

md-100 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a laptop named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
When in range, Computer1 connects automatically to a Wi-Fi network named Wireless1.
You need to prevent Computer1 from automatically connecting to Wireless1.
Solution: From the properties of the Wi-Fi adapter, you disable Link-Layer Topology Discovery Responder.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You are troubleshooting connectivity issues on Computer1.
You need to view the remote addresses to which Computer1 has active TCP connections.
Which tool should you use?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Resource Monitor
D. Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
A user has a computer that runs Windows 10.
When the user connects the computer to the corporate network, the user cannot access the internal corporate servers.
The user can access servers on the Internet.
You run the ipconfig command and receive the following output.

md-100 exam questions-q12

You send a ping request and successfully ping the default gateway, the DNS servers, and the DHCP server. Which
configuration on the computer causes the issue?
A. the DNS servers
B. the IPv4 address
C. the subnet mask
D. the default gateway address
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the users shown in the
following table.

md-100 exam questions-q13

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and is in a workgroup.
A local standard user on Computer1 named User1 joins the computer to the domain and uses the credentials of User2
when prompted.
You need to ensure that you can rename Computer1 as Computer33.
Solution: You use the credentials of User2 on Computer1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Renaming a domain-joined computer will also rename the computer account in the domain. To do this, you need
domain administrator privileges.
User2 is a domain user, not an administrator. Use User3\\’s credentials instead.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directory-security-groups

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QUESTION 1
An RSVP session is maintained with the periodic exchange of which two message types? (Choose two.)
A. path
B. resv
C. session
D. keepalive
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
The PPP over Ethernet Discovery Stage determines which two parameters? (Choose two.)
A. session ID
B. authentication server
C. IP address of the client
D. MAC address of the ERX router
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 3
What describes the functionality of NTP when using multiple virtual routers?
A. All virtual routers can act as NTP clients and servers.
B. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client and a server.
C. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP server but all can be clients.
D. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client but all can be servers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which command prompts an ERX Edge Router to go into a loopback mode on T1 number 1 when a command is
received from a remote ERX Edge Router?
A. t1 1 remote-loopback
B. t1 1 loopback-remote
C. t1 1 loopback remote
D. t1 1 remote loopback
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
What are three ways an IP interface can be assigned to a virtual router in a PPP over ATM environment? (Choose
three.)
A. profile
B. policy list
C. domain map
D. RADIUS VSA
E. classifier ACL
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
A configuration profile contains the following commands: pppoe sessions 2 ppp authentication chap ip access-routes
Which two types of dynamic interfaces result from this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. routed 1483 interfaces
B. bridged 1483 interfaces
C. 1 PPPoA dynamic interface
D. 2 PPPoE dynamic interfaces
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
What is the maximum number of NET addresses supported on a virtual router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which device is responsible for assigning label values in an MPLS network?
A. upstream node
B. originating node
C. destination node
D. downstream node
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of BGP route aggregation? (Choose two.)
A. It can reduce routing table size.
B. It allows for optimal route selection.
C. It can reduce the number of routing updates.
D. It always shortens the attribute list for the aggregated route.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which command is used on the local router to invoke a loopback mode on a remote ERX Edge Router?
A. remote loopback
B. loopback remote
C. loopback-remote
D. remote-loopbaack
Correct Answer: B

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Juniper Associate JNCIA-SEC JN0-230 practice question q1-q13 share

QUESTION 1
What is the correct order of processing when configuring NAT rules and security policies?
A. Policy lookup > source NAT > static NAT > destination NAT
B. Source NAT > static NAT > destination NAT > policy lookup
C. Static NAT > destination NAT> policy lookup > source NAT
D. Destination NAT > policy lookup > source NAT > static NAT
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
You are concerned that unauthorized traffic is using non-standardized ports on your network. In this scenario, which
type of security feature should you implement?
A. Application firewall
B. Sky ATP
C. Firewall filters
D. Zone-based policies
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which security object defines a source or destination IP address that is used for an employee Workstation?
A. Zone
B. Screen
C. Address book entry
D. scheduler
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
You want to deploy, manage, and configure multiple SRX series devices without an on-premises software solution
which solution would satisfy this requirement?
A. Junos Space Network Director
B. Juniper Sky Enterprise
C. Juniper Sky ATP
D. Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are designing a new security policy on an SRX Series device. You must block an application and log all occurrence
of the application access attempts. In this scenario, which two actions must be enabled in the security policy? (Choose
two.)
A. Log the session initiations
B. Enable a reject action
C. Log the session closures
D. Enable a deny action
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button

newpass4sure JN0-230 exam questions-q6

Which two user roles shown in the exhibit are available be defaults? (choose two)
A. Operator
B. Jtac
C. Super-user
D. Admin
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
Which statement about IPsec is correct?
A. IPsec can provide encryption but not data integrity.
B. IPsec support packet fragmentation by intermediary devices.
C. IPsec support both tunnel and transport modes.
D. IPsec must use certificates to provide data encryption
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Which type of security policy protect restricted services from running on non-standard ports?
A. Application firewall
B. IDP
C. Sky ATP
D. antivirus
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which actions would be applied for the pre-ID default policy unified policies?
A. Redirect the session
B. Reject the session
C. Log the session
D. Silently drop the session
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which statement about IPsec is correct?
A. IPsec can be used to transport native Layer 2 packets.
B. IPsec can provide encapsulation but not encryption
C. IPsec is a standards-based protocol.
D. IPsec is used to provide data replication
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are using 802.1X in your access network consisting of EX Series switches. You recently had a failure with your
RADIUS server which resulted in authenticating client devices being denied access to the network. You want to change
this behavior so that authenticating clients are directed to a remediation VLAN.
Which RADIUS server failback setting satisfies this requirement?
A. permit
B. move
C. sustain
D. deny
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which protocol is used for port-level access control and authentication?
A. MD5
B. IPsec
C. 802.1X
D. AES
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Your network has Junos Fusion configured with MX960 routers as aggregation devices (AD) and QFX5100 switches as
satellite devices (SD). Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. All SDs connected to a single AD must use the same software version.
B. SDs are added to the AD by configuring the cascade port on the AD.
C. The Fusion extended ports are configured on the SDs.
D. The AD runs the Junos software for all its connected SDs.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure JN0-648 exam questions-q4

Which well-known community needs to be used to restrict 10.0.0.0/8 from being advertised to AS 2?
A. no-publish
B. no-advertise
C. no-export-subconfed
D. no-export
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
You are currently using VLAN IDs 2 through 300 within your Layer 2 domain and you need to configure VSTP to prevent
loops. You must ensure that all VLANs are loop free.
In this scenario, which statement is correct?
A. You must ensure that the VLANs are balanced between two different root bridges.
B. You must enable RSTP to account for all VLANs.
C. You must ensure that the bridge priority is set to the lowest value on all switches in the Layer 2 domain.
D. You must enable all VLANs, 2 through 300, under the VSTP configuration.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q6

You have configured and applied the policer shown in the exhibit to your Junos device. Which statement is true in this
scenario?
A. Traffic exceeding the committed-burst size will be marked with a loss priority of high.
B. Traffic exceeding the excess-burst size will be discarded.
C. Traffic exceeding the committed-information-rate will be rate limited.
D. Traffic exceeding the committed-burst size will be discarded.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q7

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Only 802.1X authentication will be used for devices connecting to ge-0/0/15.
B. Additional users will automatically be allowed to connect to ge-0/0/15.
C. The current device is authenticated using MAC RADIUS.
D. The current device was allowed after authentication attempts to the RADIUS server failed.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct about MSTP?
A. MSTP enables mapping multiple independent spanning-tree instances onto one physical topology.
B. MSTP enables dynamic discovery of Layer 2 neighbors.
C. MSTP dynamically manages VLAN registration in a LAN.
D. MSTP uses stacked VLAN tags to extend a Layer 2 Ethernet connection between multiple sites.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q9

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true with regards to deploying CoS? (Choose two.)
A. You should apply MF classifiers on the LAN-facing interfaces of the routers.
B. You should apply MF classifiers on the point-to-point interfaces of the routers.
C. You should apply BA classifiers on the point-to-point interfaces of the routers.
D. You should apply BA classifiers on the LAN-facing interfaces of the routers.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.

newpass4sure jn0-648 exam questions-q10

Referring to the exhibit, the source is currently sending multicast traffic using group 224.1.1.1, which is being received
by R1. R2 is not receiving PIM register messages.
What would be the cause of this problem?
A. Tunnel services have not been enabled on R1.
B. All routers have not been configured with the same Auto-RP discovery group.
C. R5 has not received an IGMP report of 224.1.1.1.
D. A(*,G) tree has not been built yet.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are designing a Layer 3 fabric underlay using EBGP. You will implement an EVPN-signaled VXLAN overlay on the
Layer 3 fabric.
In this scenario, what must you do in the underlay to ensure that the VXLAN overlay will be able to function properly?
A. The underlay should advertise the host-connected interfaces on all leaf devices.
B. Each device in the underlay should advertise its loopback address.
C. The underlay should be configured with a separate VRF for each potential tenant.
D. The underlay should support the PIM protocol.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Referring to the exhibit, each node in the IP fabric is peering to its directly attached neighbor using EBGP. Each node is
peering using physical interface IP addresses. Leaf 2 and Leaf 3 are advertising the 10.1.1/24 network into EBGP.
Spine 2 must be configured so that it can load-share traffic destined to the 10 1.1/24 network over both next-hop A and
next-hop B.

newpass4sure jn0-681 exam questions-q2

Which two actions must be performed to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use a load-balancing policy applied to the forwarding table.
B. Use multipath multiple-AS.
C. Use advertise-inactive.
D. Use multihop.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 3
When using EBGP as the underlay protocol for your IP fabric architecture, which two statements are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Spine nodes only peer to leaf nodes.
B. Leaf nodes peer to both spine and leaf nodes.
C. Leaf nodes only peer to spine nodes.
D. Spine nodes peer to both leaf and spine nodes.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 4
You are asked to manage the oversubscription ratio of your spine and leaf IP fabric. You determine that you are at a 3:1
ratio of downstream to upstream traffic and must achieve a 1:1 ratio.
In this scenario, which two actions would you take to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry traffic.
B. Reduce the number of server-facing ports that each leaf node uses to carry traffic.
C. Increase the number of spine nodes in your design.
D. Reduce the number of leaf nodes in your design.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about a Data Center Interconnect over an IP network?
A. Layer 2 data must traverse a point-to-point link.
B. Layer 2 data must traverse an MPLS LSP.
C. Layer 2 data must be encapsulated.
D. Layer 3 data must be encapsulated.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
What happens when a packet is encapsulated by a VXLAN before being placed in the overlay?
A. The QoS markings are placed in the VXLAN header.
B. The VLAN-ID is placed in the VXLAN header.
C. A VNI that maps to the VLAN-ID is placed in the VXLAN header.
D. The TTL is decremented by two and placed in the VXLAN header.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Referring to the exhibit, Host 1 and Host 3 have exchanged traffic.

newpass4sure jn0-681 exam questions-q7

In this scenario, which statement is true?
A. Leaf 2 does not learn Host 1\\’s MAC address until Host 1 and Host 2 send traffic to each other.
B. Leaf 2 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address through periodic updates from Spine 2.
C. Leaf 2 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address when Host 3 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address.
D. Leaf 2 learns Host 1\\’s MAC address when Leaf 1 queries Host 1.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which protocol is used between VCF member devices to create a loop-free topology?
A. LLDP
B. MSTP
C. RSTP
D. VCCP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
You are deploying a VXLAN using EVPN signalling overlay network in your new data center. You are able to establish
your MP-BGP peering sessions and see your EVPN routes, but traffic will not traverse the VXLAN using EVPN
signalling overlay network.
What is a solution to this problem?
A. Increase the MTU on the logical VTEP source interface of all devices participating in VXLAN using EVPN signaling.
B. Enable the mtu-discovery feature on the MP-BGP peering sessions between all VXLANs using EVPN signalling
peers.
C. Increase the protocol MTU on all devices participating in VXLAN using EVPN signalling.
D. Increase the physical MTU on all ports on all devices participating in VXLAN using EVPN signaling.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are configuring VXLAN, and you must ensure that all switches for the multicast groups advertise their existence and
learn about other VTEPs.
In this scenario, which protocol will accomplish this task?
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. EVPN
D. PIM
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCNP 350-701 Practice Test 1-13

QUESTION 1
What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?
A. Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.
B. A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.
C. Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.
D. Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
What must be used to share data between multiple security products?
A. Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud
B. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
C. Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
D. Cisco Rapid Threat Containment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer
also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or
WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2
instance in Amazon Web Services.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure 350-701 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about VRF-Aware Cisco Firewall are true? (Choose three)
A. It supports both global and per-VRF commands and DoS parameters.
B. It enables service providers to deploy firewalls on customer devices.
C. It can generate syslog messages that are visible only to individual VPNs.
D. It can support VPN networks with overlapping address ranges without NAT.
E. It enables service providers to implement firewalls on PE devices.
F. It can run as more than one instance.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 7
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. WSA
B. Firepower
C. FireSIGHT
D. ASA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?
A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-crc4.html#wp6039879000

QUESTION 9
Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS
B. Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured
C. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises
D. Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured
E. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/adaptive-security-virtual-appliance-asav/whitepaper-c11-740505.html


QUESTION 10

newpass4sure 350-701 exam questions-q10

Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of the configuration?
A. Traffic from the DMZ network is redirected.
B. Traffic from the inside network is redirected.
C. All TCP traffic is redirected.
D. Traffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d


QUESTION 12
An sneaky employee using an Android phone on your network has disabled DHCP, enabled it\\’s firewall, modified it\\’s
HTTP User-Agent header, to tool ISE into profiling it as a Windows 10 machine connected to the wireless network. This
user
is now able to get authorization for unrestricted network access using his Active Directory credentials, as your policy
states that a Windows device using AD credentials should be able to get full network access. Whereas, an Android
device
should only get access to the Web proxy.
Which two steps can you take to avoid this sort of rogue behavior? (Choose two)
A. Create an authentication rule that should only allow session with a specific HTTP User-Agent header
B. Modify the authorization policy to only allow Windows machines that have passed Machine Authentication to get full
network access
C. Add an authorization policy before the Windows authorization policy that redirects a user with a static IP to a web
portal for authentication
D. Chain an authorization policy to the Windows authorization policy that performs additional NMAP scans to verify the
machine type, before allowing access
E. Only allow certificate-based authentication from Windows endpoints, such as EAP-TLS or PEAP- TLS.Should the
endpoint use MSCHAPv2 (EAP or PEAP), the user should be only given restricted access
F. Perform CoA to push a restricted access when the machine is acquiring address using DHCP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention
System?
A. security intelligence
B. impact flags
C. health monitoring
D. URL filtering
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about Multi Line Agent mode in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment are true?
(Choose three.)
A. It monitors and reports calls on all lines on the phone.
B. Allows Unified CCE to support Join Across Line and Direct Transfer Across Line features on the phone.
C. It monitors and reports of calls on only one line on the phone.
D. It requires a busy trigger of 2 (call waiting), although calls cannot be forwarded to other extensions on the phone
when busy.
E. It requires a maximum of two call appearances.
F. Shared lines are supported on ACD lines but not on non-ACD lines.
G. Call Park is supported on ACD and non-ACD lines.
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Finesse CLI command provides the license MAC address?
A. show network status
B. show net status
C. show status
D. show network detail
E. show net detail
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

newpass4sure 500-450 exam questions-q3

In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, an agent with single line 89XX hard phone is having trouble logging in to the
desktop. The error message highlighted has been found in the Jgw1log file. Which option describes the likely cause of
this error?
A. MAC address of the phone not associated with PG user.
B. PG user does not have “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones supporting ConnectedXfer and conf user group” role.
C. In the peripheral gateway, Agent Phone Line Control not set to “All Lines”.
D. Phone Join Across Lines feature is enabled.
E. Phone line does not have the Maximum Number of Calls and Busy Trigger setting set to 2 and 1 respectively.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Whisper Announcements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The first number calls the ringtone service that the caller hears while the Whisper Announcement plays to the agent.
The CVP default for this number is 92929292.
B. The second number calls the Whisper Announcement itself. The CVP default for this number is 9191919100.
C. The second number calls the Whisper Announcement itself. The CVP default for this number is 9292929200.
D. As an option, set the dial plan with 9191*.
E. As an option, set the dial plan with 9292*.
F. The Whisper Announcement dialed number is always an extension of the Ringtone dialed number with an extra two
zeros at the end.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about when you install/deploy Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VMs on VMware ESXi
hosts are true? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level.
B. You cannot enable hyper-threading, but you can over-subscribe the vCPU and vRAM.
C. You can enable hyper-threading at the Guest OS level.
D. You can enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level, but you cannot over-subscribe the vCPU and vRAM.
E. You cannot enable hyper-threading at the hypervisor level.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 6
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could
increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance
from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would
reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which list of scripting objects is valid in a Consider If formula for Precision Queue?
A. Call, Attribute, SkillGroup, Call Type
B. Call, PQ, SkillGroup, Call Type
C. Call Type, PQ, Attribute, Call
D. Call, Call Type, Proficiency, SkillGroup
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two microapps can capture DTMF from the caller in the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Play Media and Get Speech
B. Get Speech and Menu
C. Menu and Play Media
D. Menu and Get Digits
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 9
While a voice gateway accesses webservices elements, it times out and throws an error.badfetch event. Which two
options are common ways to reduce such errors? (Choose two.)
A. Set FetchAudioDelay timeout.
B. Set FetchAudioMinimum timeout.
C. Set mediafetchDelay timeout.
D. Set mediafetchDelay.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which two actions are needed to enable VXML application detail reporting? (Choose two.)
A. Deploy CVP reporting server then associate CVP Call Server to the CVP reporting server.
B. Set user.vxml_detail_rpt.rpt_Serv to value 1.
C. Set user.vxml_detail_rpt.rpt_Serv to value 0.
D. Enable Report Data Exclusive Filtering.
E. Enable reporting for CVP VXML Server as well as VXML Application detail.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 11
Which command is issued to check the replication status of a Cisco Unified Intelligence Center cluster?
A. utils dbreplication
B. utils dbreplication runtimestate
C. utils dbreplication summary
D. show dbreplication status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which CLI command is run on Cisco Unified Intelligence Center to check database replication?
A. utils dbreplication status
B. show dbreplication status
C. utils replication status
D. show replication status
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which three options dictate that MicroApps are not sufficient and require Call Studio for Call Flow scripting? (Choose
three.)
A. Courtesy Callback
B. recording a .wav file
C. FTP a file
D. Emergency Contact Center closure
E. agent whisper
F. IVR Outbound option
G. agent greeting
Correct Answer: ABC

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Microsoft Power Platform PL-900 exam questions

QUESTION 1
A distribution company has multiple warehouses.
Tax rates charged on sales orders need to be calculated based on locality and region.
You need to recommend a cost-effective solution that can be implemented quickly.
What should you recommend?
A. Check AppSource for a tax add-on.
B. Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance for tax table changes.
C. Implement the Common Data Model.
D. Run a Power BI report.
E. Write scripts and code tax updates.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/indirect-taxes-overview

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
A company needs to create a series of mobile applications to empower their field engineers to accomplish several tasks
with varying degrees of complexity.
Match each option to its answer.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate app type from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each app
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pl-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q2-2

Box 1: canvas Both model-driven and canvas apps allow you to easily build business apps. They both share access to
the Common Data Service providing standard and custom entities. Canvas apps start with your user experience,
crafting a highly tailored interface with the power of a blank canvas and connecting it to 200 data sources. Canvas apps
can be built for web, mobile, and tablet applications. Model-driven apps start with your data model – building up from the
shape of your core business data and processes in the Common Data Service to model forms, views, and other
components. Model-driven apps automatically generate great UI that is responsive across devices. Box 2: model-driven
Reference: https://powerapps.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/introducing-model-driven-apps/

QUESTION 3
A toy company creates a text classification model in AI Builder to monitor customer feedback for specific key words.
When negative feedback is received for a toy, the company wants to proactively perform engineering reviews for the toy
and schedule additional training sessions for workers who produce the toy.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a canvas app.
B. Implement the Virtual Agent.
C. Build a Microsoft Flow.
D. Use the Common Data Model.
Correct Answer: AC
A (not D): AI Builder comes with:
A ready-to-use business card reader available in canvas as well as in model-driven apps.
Business card reader (Canvas)
Business card reader (Model-driven)
Additional canvas components to leverage your AI Builder form processing or object detection models canvas apps.
C: Use the results from your AI model across Power Platform to create end-to-end solutions that meet your business
needs, even if you have no coding skills. For example, create a flow that automates document processing in Power
Automate, or an app created with PowerApps that predicts whether a supplier will be out of compliance. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/use-in-powerapps-overview 

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
A company plans to use Power Apps to connect to a series of custom services. There are no connectors available for
the custom services.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q4-2

Box 1: Yes
Only if you would like to share your connector with all users of Logic Apps, Microsoft Flow, and PowerApps, you can
submit your connector for Microsoft certification. Microsoft will review your connector.
Box 2: Yes
Connectors created in Microsoft Flow are available in PowerApps. Likewise, connectors created in PowerApps are
available in Microsoft Flow.
Box 3: No
If you would like to share your connector with all users of Logic Apps, Microsoft Flow, and PowerApps, you can submit
your connector for Microsoft certification. Microsoft will review your connector.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/connectors/custom-connectors/

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A company uses Power Apps.
You need to perform administrative tasks for the company.
Which admin centers should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate admin centers to the correct requirements. Each
admin center may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q5

Box 1: Azure Active Directory
Create the company users in the Azure Active Directory.
Box 2: Power Apps admin center
In the Power Apps Admin center, manage environments that you\\’ve created and those for which you have been added
to the Environment Admin or System Administrator role. From the admin center, you can perform these administrative
actions:
Create environments.
Rename environments.
Add or remove a user or group from either the Environment Admin or Environment Maker role.
Etc.
Incorrect Answers:
Use the Dynamics 365 admin center to review the status of your apps and solutions, apply updates, and manage your
Dynamics 365 instances, solutions, and apps.
The Power BI admin portal enables you to manage a Power BI tenant for your organization. The portal includes items
such as usage metrics, access to the Microsoft 365 admin center, and settings.
Note: You use the Microsoft 365 admin center to create user accounts for every user who needs access to model-driven
apps in Dynamics 365, such as Dynamics 365 Sales and Customer Service.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/environments-administration
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/marketing/dynamics-365-admin-center
https://powerapps.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/introducing-admin-center-for-powerapps/

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
A company uses a third party application and an approval process via email. At the end of the month, the IT department
enters the data into Microsoft Excel to create pivot charts.
The Excel pivot charts must use the same data source as Dynamics 365 Field Service to generate charts and reports.
You need to recommend a solution.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q6-2

Box 1: Dynamics 365 Workflow notifications
You can configure the system to send email messages to users when workflow-related events occur.
Note:
1. Go to Navigation pane > Modules > System administration > Users > Users.
2. In the list, find and select the desired record.
3. On the Action pane, click User options.
4. Click the Workflow tab. Make sure that the Notifications section is expanded. In the Notifications section, you can
specify how you want the user to be notified about workflow-related events.
Box 2: Dynamics 365 Field Service
Supply Chain Management enables synchronization of business processes between Dynamics 365 Supply Chain
Management and Dynamics 365 Field Service. The integration scenarios are configured by using extensible Data
integrator templates and Common Data Service to enable the synchronization of business processes. Standard
templates
can be used to create custom integration projects, where additional standard and custom fields and entities can be
mapped to adjust the integration and meet specific business needs.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/organization-administration/tasks/usersreceive-workflow-related-email-messages

QUESTION 7
You create a business rule on contact entity to enforce the requirement that users must enter either a telephone number, fax number, or an email when creating a new record.
The company decides to remove fax number from the condition.
You need to update the business rule.
What are two ways of achieving the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Save a copy of the rule and change the condition. Deactivate and delete the original rule.
B. Deactivate the business rule and change the condition.
C. Take a snapshot of the business rule and change the condition.
D. Change the condition and activate the change.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/working-with-rules

QUESTION 8
You need to use Microsoft Flow to perform data-management tasks when users interact with the sales opportunities in
Dynamics 365.
Which three types of triggers can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. record requested
B. record deletion
C. record creation
D. record updated
E. record selected
Correct Answer: BCD
Triggers like When a record is created, When a record is updated, and When a record is deleted initiate your flow within
a few minutes of the event occurring. In rare cases, your flow can take up to 2 hours to trigger.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/connection-dynamics365

QUESTION 9
You create a Power BI dashboard that displays data from Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement.
You need to share the Power BI dashboard with coworkers.What are three possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Power BI workspace and grant coworkers permissions.
B. Publish the dashboard as an app to your coworkers.
C. Export the data into Common Data Service for others to manipulate in Power BI.
D. Export the data to Microsoft Excel for coworkers to import and view in Power BI.
E. Embed reports in your company\\’s internal web portal.
Correct Answer: ABE
A: Basic Sharing for Dashboards and Reports through a workspace is the most common way of sharing the Power BI
content. Basic Sharing is very simple and easy to use method. You can simply click on the Share button in the
dashboard or report, and then share it with other users.

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q9

B: Apps are great sharing method for multiple environment, and best way of sharing for users in production
environment.
Power BI App is the solution for multiple environment approach. With Power BI App, your development environment
(workspace), and user environment (App) are isolated from each other.
Note: If you are using SharePoint online as a portal for document management and some other reasons already, then
consider using Embed in SharePoint Online feature of Power BI reports. This method is secure and you can share the
report only with Power BI users you want.
E: Sometimes, you don\\’t need a secure way of sharing, you may search for an easy and free way of sharing, and your
content is not confidential or sensitive. Publish to web is your friend in such situation. This is the only free way of sharing
in Power BI, but be aware that this method is not secure.
Publish to web method, gives you an embed code, which you can use in any web pages to embed the Power BI report
in it
Reference: https://radacad.com/power-bi-sharing-methods-comparison-all-in-one-review

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
A company plans to use Microsoft Flow to automate tasks.
Match each flow type to its function. To answer, drag the appropriate flow type from the column on the left to its
description on the right. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q10

Box 1: automated
Automated flows start with an event or trigger, such as an email being received. These also support a multitude of
actions in the 200+ Flow connectors.
Box 2: business process
The business process flow that creates stages or screens that enforce a certain sequence of steps. It collects data from
users for each step in the stage and can kick off automated workflows.
Box 3: scheduled
Scheduled flows run regular reports that are sent out to a team and summarize everything that\\’s happened in the past
week. This includes everything from simple daily scheduling to more complex scheduling like “every 3rd Monday.”
Box 4: instant
An instant flow is triggered when you click a button inside of the Flow mobile app, SharePoint, Dynamics, PowerApps,
or Excel that passes context directly into your flow.
Note: There are four different Flow types that you can choose from when starting out. You can create a scheduled flow,
automated flow, instant flow, or a business process flow.
Reference:
https://www.avepoint.com/blog/office-365/office-365-automation/

QUESTION 11
A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management.
When a sales order is created for one of the customers that a specific user manages, a Microsoft Outlook task must be
created to remind the user to perform any follow up activities that are required.
You need to implement the functionality to create Outlook tasks.
Which two features should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. AI Builder
B. Power Apps
C. Business Events
D. Microsoft Flow
E. Common Data Service
Correct Answer: CD
Business events in Microsoft Power Automate
Business events can be consumed in Microsoft Power Automate via the application connector. The connector has a
trigger that is named when a business event occurs. This trigger can be used to subscribe to any of the business events
that are available in the target instance of the application.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/business-events/business-events-flow

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A business is evaluating AI Builder.
Which actions can you perform?
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q12

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/create-text-classification-model https://radacad.com/objectdetector-app-with-ai-builder-and-power-apps

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You need to explain the major components of the Common Data Model (CDM) and their functions.
Match each term to its definition.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its definition on the right. Each term
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

newpass4sure pl-900 exam questions-q13

Box 1: Microsoft Power Platform
Power Platform combines the robust power of PowerApps, PowerBI, and Microsoft Flow into one powerful business
application platform – providing quick and easy app building and data insights. Each component of the Microsoft Power
Platform is built on the Common Data Service for Apps. Each component is dynamic by itself, but brilliant and
masterful when combined.
The Microsoft Power platform brings all your data together into a common data model.
Box 2: Entities
An entity is a set of records used to store data, similar to how a table stores data within a database.
Reference:
https://community.dynamics.com/365/b/encloud9dynamicss365crm/posts/an-introduction-to-the-microsoft-powerplatform
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/common-data-service/data-platform-intro

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